Hope this is a meaningful question, but I'm curious if is possible to show that
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} a^{\frac{1}{n}}=1, \text{where }a>0$$
using $\delta-\epsilon$ directly or other methods. One method that I am aware of is to use the following:
If $\{s_n\}$ is a nonzero sequence, then $\liminf\bigl|\frac{s_{n+1}}{s_n}\bigr|\le \liminf |s_n|^{\frac{1}{n}}\le \limsup |s_n|^{\frac{1}{n}}\le\limsup\bigl|\frac{s_{n+1}}{s_n}\bigr|$