I see this question and the answer by joriki.
However I cannot understand joriki's argument that $$\int_2^\infty \left(\frac1{x\log^2x}\right)^p\mathrm dx$$ diverges for p>1.
So I try to show that by myslef, by finding a function $f(x)<\left(\frac1{x\log^2x}\right)^p$ for sufficiently large $x$ and $\int f(x) dx=\infty$, but it is difficult.
Please help me to understand that argument or give me some hints.