I am sure this is a familiar example to many, as it comes up as an example of a function which belongs to $L^p$ for $p=1$ but not $L^p$ for $p < 1$, but I am having a hard time seeing why it is "trivially" divergent.
By direct calculation $$ \int_2^\infty \frac{dx}{x \ln^2 x} < \infty$$ Now consider $$ I(p) = \int_2^\infty \left( \frac{1}{x \ln^2 x} \right)^{p} \ dx$$ Now $I(p)$ should be divergent for $p < 1$, but I can't quite see how. For instance by writing $p = 1 - \varepsilon$, I am able to show that the integral diverges for $p < \frac{1}{2}$, but this isn't enough. The square in the logarithm is throwing me off, and I can't seem to find a smart lower bound for the function $\ln^2 x$.
Any help would be nice, I would prefer a hint to a direct answer though.