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I'm trying to read Elias Stein's "Singular Integrals" book, and in the beginning of the second chapter, he states two results classifying bounded linear operators that commute (on $L^1$ and $L^2$ respectively).

The first one reads:

Let $T: L^1(\mathbb{R}^n) \to L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$ be a bounded linear transformation. Then $T$ commutes with translations if and only if there exists a measure $\mu$ in the dual of $C_0(\mathbb{R}^n)$ (continuous functions vanishing at infinity), s.t. $T(f) = f \ast \mu$ for every $f \in L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$. It is also true that $\|T\|=\|\mu\|$.

The second one says:

Let $T:L^2(\mathbb{R}^n) \to L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ be bounded and linear. Then $T$ commutes with translation if and only if there exists a bounded measurable function $m(y)$ so that $(T\hat{f})(y) = m(y) \hat{f}(y)$ for all $f \in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$. It is also true that $\|T\|=\|m\|_\infty$.

I was wondering if anyone had a reference to a proof of these two results or could explain why they are true.

user1736
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    Here is a hint for the first part. Let $\phi_\epsilon(x)=\phi(x/\epsilon)/\epsilon^n$ where $$\phi(x)=\left{\begin{array}{cl}e^{|x|^2/(|x|^2-1)}&\text{if }|x|<1\0&\text{if }|x|\ge1\end{array}\right.$$ $|T\phi_\epsilon|{L^1}$ is bounded as $\epsilon\to0$, so there is a sequence ${\epsilon_k}$ and a measure $\mu$ so that $T\phi{\epsilon_k}\to\mu$ weakly in $L^1$. – robjohn Sep 03 '11 at 01:12
  • @robjohn: it may be worth pointing out that the only thing you need is that you have an approximate unit in in the convolution algebra $L^1$ consisting of continuous functions of compact support. Making it explicit doesn't help much, I think. But it's a great hint! – t.b. Sep 03 '11 at 01:18
  • @Theo: Yes, you are right. There is nothing special about the $\phi$ I gave, other than it is positive, has compact support, and is in $L^1$. Originally, I started out writing up a proof using this $\phi$, but due to time constraints, I posted a hint instead. When I get time later, I may finish the proof. – robjohn Sep 03 '11 at 02:09
  • Great book. For a reference check out Grafakos' "Classical Fourier Analysis". (It is not quite what you want but it is a similar result). –  Sep 03 '11 at 10:18
  • For the second one the definition should be $(Tf)^\wedge=m\hat{f}$ (otherwise $T$ is just multiplication by $m$ rather than a Fourier multiplier operator). – robjohn Sep 03 '11 at 16:26

3 Answers3

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For the first one:

Let $\phi_\epsilon(x)=\phi(x/\epsilon)/\epsilon^n$ where $$ \phi(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cl}c\;e^{|x|^2/(|x|^2-1)}&\text{if }|x|<1\\0&\text{if }|x|\ge1\end{array}\right. $$ and $c$ is chosen so that $\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\phi(x)\;\mathrm{d}x=1$.

$\|T\phi_\epsilon\|_{L^1}$ is bounded as $\epsilon\to0$, so there is a sequence $\{\epsilon_k\}$ and a measure $\mu$ so that $T\phi_{\epsilon_k}\to\mu$ weakly in $L^1$.

Since $T$ is continuous, linear, and commutes with translation, $$ \begin{align} f*\mu(x) &=\lim_{k\to\infty}\;\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}f(y)\;T\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y)\;\mathrm{d}y\\ &=\lim_{k\to\infty}\;\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}f(y)\;T(\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y))\;\mathrm{d}y\\ &=\lim_{k\to\infty}\;\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}T(f(y)\;\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y))\;\mathrm{d}y\\ &=\lim_{k\to\infty}\;T\left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}f(y)\;\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y)\;\mathrm{d}y\right)\\ &=T\left(\lim_{k\to\infty}\;\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}f(y)\;\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y)\;\mathrm{d}y\right)\\ &=Tf(x) \end{align} $$ For the second one the definition should be $(Tf)^\wedge=m\hat{f}$ (otherwise $T$ is just multiplication by $m$ rather than a Fourier multiplier operator). Let $\psi(x)=e^{-\pi x^2}$ so that $\hat{\psi}=\psi$. $$ \begin{align} \psi(\xi)\;(Tf)^\wedge(\xi) &=(\psi*Tf)^\wedge(\xi)\\ &=\left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\psi(x-y)\;Tf(y)\;\mathrm{d}y\right)^\wedge(\xi)\\ &=\left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\psi(y)\;Tf(x-y)\;\mathrm{d}y\right)^\wedge(\xi)\\ &=\left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}T^{\;*}\psi(y)\;f(x-y)\;\mathrm{d}y\right)^\wedge(\xi)\\ &=(T^{\;*}\psi)^\wedge(\xi)\hat{f}(\xi) \end{align} $$ Let $m(\xi)=(T^{\;*}\psi)^\wedge(\xi)/\psi(\xi)$, then we have $$ (Tf)^\wedge(\xi)=m(\xi)\hat{f}(\xi) $$ and therefore, $\|m\|_{L^\infty}=\|T\|_{L^2}$.

robjohn
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  • I have two simple questions here: 1. Isn't the argument rather that you have a sequence $\phi_{\epsilon_k}$ that converges weak$^{\ast}$ in $(C_0)^{\ast}$ and do your computation for $f$ continuous with compact support first and then extend the equality $f \ast \mu = Tf$ for $f \in C_c$ to all of $L^1$ by continuity of both sides? 2. You say "so there is a sequence ... and a measure $\mu$ such that $\phi_{\epsilon_k} \to \mu$ weakly in $L^1$". What result do you have in mind here? I've never seen such a statement and re-proved variants by hand as needed. Could you give me a reference, please? – t.b. Sep 04 '11 at 09:42
  • @robjohn: I was going to ask the same question as Theo. Also, how do you go from $\int f(y) T(\phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y)) dy = \int T(f(y)) \phi_{\epsilon_k}(x-y) dy$? Wouldnt it be $T^*$? – user1736 Sep 04 '11 at 15:31
  • @Theo: $L^1$ is a subset of the signed Radon measures, $\mathcal{M}$, which is the dual of $C_c$. $\mathcal{M}$ is weakly-* compact in that any bounded sequence ${\mu_k}$ in $\mathcal{M}$ contains a subsequence which converges weakly-* to some $\mu\in\mathcal{M}$ (that is when tested against any $f\in C_c$). One reference is Weak and weak star convergences. – robjohn Sep 04 '11 at 19:17
  • @user1736: your parentheses do not match mine. I am simply using the linearity and translation invariance of $T$ (that is, $T$ is operating on $x$, and $y$ is just translation that can be moved outside $T$). – robjohn Sep 04 '11 at 19:20
  • @robjohn: Thanks for the reference, but you're essentially saying the same as I did in my comment. However, you want to take the dual of $C_0$ (functions vanishing at infinity) not of $C_c$ (functions of compact support--which you usually don't equip with the sup-norm but with a different topology). By the way, Theorem 7.1 in the linked notes is wrong in that the space $C_c$ is not complete wrt the sup-norm. I do object to your usage of "converges weakly in $L^1$", then (which would involve duality with $L^\infty$). But it's merely a technical detail and I'm happy with your argument. – t.b. Sep 04 '11 at 19:32
  • @Theo: I had originally written $C_0$, but the reference I cited used $C_c$, so I thought that perhaps I had misremembered. Of course you are correct, and $C_c$ should be changed to $C_0$ in my last comment. My weak vs weak-* notation was a little sloppy, too. – robjohn Sep 04 '11 at 19:37
  • @robjohn: Oh, I think I can see what you mean. So you're also just using linearity to pull $T$ outside of the integral, and to pull the limit inside then, right? – user1736 Sep 04 '11 at 19:41
  • @user1736: linearity to pull $T$ outside, and continuity to pull the limit inside. Yes. – robjohn Sep 04 '11 at 19:45
  • @robjohn Does your solution for part (ii) show both directions? –  Feb 26 '17 at 07:05
  • @user412674: my answer shows that if $T$ is a bounded linear operator on $L^2$ that commutes with translations, then $T$ is a Fourier multiplier operator with a bounded measurable function. The other direction follows pretty easily by Plancherel's Theorem. – robjohn Feb 26 '17 at 10:35
  • $|T\varphi_{e_k}|{L^1}\leq C|\varphi{e_k}|{L^1}$ now, why $\varphi{e_k}$ is bounded in $L^1$? – eraldcoil Nov 13 '19 at 04:25
  • Each $\varphi_{\epsilon_k}$ has the same $L^1$ norm by the dilation properties of that norm. – robjohn Nov 13 '19 at 08:32
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    $$ \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\frac{\phi(x/\epsilon)}{\epsilon^n},\mathrm{d}x = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\phi(x),\mathrm{d}x $$ – robjohn Nov 14 '19 at 04:57
  • I have this: $|Tϕϵ|L1≤C|ϕϵ|L1$ because $T$ is bounded. $|Tϕϵ|L1$ is bounded when $ϵ→0$ if$ |ϕϵ|L1$ is bounded when $ϵ→0.$ Now, |ϕe|{L1}=∫|x|<1ce|x/ϵ|2/(|x/ϵ|2−1)endx . Then limϵ→0 $\int_{|x|<1} \frac{ce^{{|x/\epsilon|^2}/{(|x/\epsilon|^2-1)}}dx<\infty?$ – – eraldcoil Nov 14 '19 at 10:47
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    Please read my last two comments. All of the $\phi_{\epsilon_k}$ have the same $L^1$ norm; so, yes, the limit is $\lt\infty$. – robjohn Nov 14 '19 at 11:03
  • Thank you. I have already understood that part. Of course, there are other parts that I still don't understand ... Will you by chance have the reference of the star convergence that was in the link above? (the link is down) – eraldcoil Nov 14 '19 at 22:19
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  • Thanks. At what step did you use that the linear transformation T is invariant under translations? I can't see where it's used. I know that T invariant traslation if $\tau_{h}T=T\tau_{h}$ for every $\tau_{h}$ traslation. – eraldcoil Nov 15 '19 at 19:57
  • $f(x)=\lim_{k\to \infty} \int f(y)\phi_{e_{k}}(x-y)dy$ It is a result of a theorem? – eraldcoil Nov 15 '19 at 20:05
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  • thanks but Is there a result similar to theorem 7.12 of the link https://web.archive.org/web/20130512112622/http://jpmandallena.pagesperso-orange.fr/weak-convergence.pdf, with $C_ {0}$ instead of $C_ {cc}$? – eraldcoil Dec 10 '19 at 20:21
  • The dual space of $C_{cc}$ is contained in dual space of $C_{0}$? Ask this then, the statement says that there is a measure in the dual space of $C_0$. But, theorem 7.12 of the link above says that there is a measure in the space of measures of positive Radon, which is dual of $C_ {cc}$. In this way, I want to see that given a measure $\mu\in (C_ {cc})^ {\ast})$ then $\mu \in (C_ {0})^{\ast}$ which I don't know if it's true ... $C_{0}\subset C_{cc}$ implies $(C_{cc})^{\ast}\subset (C_{0})^{\ast}$? – eraldcoil Dec 11 '19 at 18:31
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    Why $\left|m\right|{\infty}=\left|T\right|{L^2}$? – eraldcoil Dec 12 '19 at 03:13
  • @eraldcoil: The $L^2$ norm of a Fourier multiplier operator is the $L^\infty$ norm of the multiplier function. Sorry it took almost 5 years to respond; I didn’t see your comment until I looked at the answer after getting an upvote. – robjohn Sep 03 '24 at 18:26
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Let me just give a literature reference, in case that's what you are interested in. The classical paper on translation invariant operators on Lebesgue spaces is Hormander's 1960 Acta paper "Estimates for translation invariant operators in $L^p$ spaces". If you have access to MathSciNet, here's the mref.

Willie Wong
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A bounded linear operator $ T: L^2 \to L^2$ and commutes with translation

Known result from Riesz Representation theorem see here:$\int Tf(s)u(s) ds=\int f(s)T^*u(s)ds$ written as $<Tf,u>=<f,T^*u>$, where $ T^*$ is the linear adjoint operator of $ T $ , $ u \in L^2$

now for $f(s)$ translated by $x$ ,$f(s+x)$

we have $\int Tf(s+x)u(s)ds=\int f(s+x)T^*u(s)ds$

Now take Let $u_{\epsilon}=\phi_\epsilon(s)=\phi(s/\epsilon)\epsilon^{-1}$ where $\phi(s)$ is normalized gaussian function with zero mean.

$\int Tf(s+x)u_{\epsilon}(-s) ds=\int Tf(s+x)u_{\epsilon}(s)ds=\int f(s+x)T^*u_{\epsilon}(s)ds$

$H(s)=Tf(s)$ , by translation commutation $H(s+x)=Tf(s+x)$

$R(-s)=T^*u_{\epsilon}$

we have $\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} H* u_{\epsilon}=\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} f*R$

$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0} H*u_{\epsilon}=H(x)$ ae

for $u \in L^1$ function, we have the following theorem regarding fourier transform:

$v(x)=g*u=\int g(s)u(x-s) ds$ for $g \in L^2$ , define $\hat{g}=lim_{n \to \infty}\int_{n}^{-n}g(s)e^{2i\pi x z} dx$ the limit exists in the sense of $L^2$. If $u \in L^1$ and $\int |g(s)||u(x-s)| ds \le P$ where $P$ is a non negative integrable function in $L^2$ then $\hat{v}=\hat{g}\hat{u}$

Proof : $g_n=g1_{[-n,n]},v_n=g_n*u$ it's known that $\hat{v_n}=\hat{g_n}\hat{u}$ By dominated convergence theorem $lim_{n \to \infty} ||v-v_n||^2=0$ and by Plancherel theorem $lim_{n \to \infty} ||v-v_m||^2= lim_{n \to \infty} ||\hat{v}-\hat{v_n}||^2=0$ This implies $lim_{n \to \infty} \hat{v_n}=\hat{v}$

Now from our equation when $u$ is a normalized Gaussian we have $|H|* |u_{\epsilon}| \le MH(x)$ where $MH(x)$ is the Hardy Littlewood Maximal function (also $ ||MH(x)||^2 \le ||H(x)||^2$) using Fourier transform $\hat{H}(z)\hat{u_{\epsilon}}(z)=\hat{f}(z)G(z)$ where $G(z)=\hat{R}$

$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\hat{ u_{\epsilon}}=1$

$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0}G=m(z)$

consequently we have $\hat{Hf}(z)=m(z)\hat{f}(z)$

ibnAbu
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