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In calculus of variations we take partial derivatives with respect to functions ($\infty$-dim parameters/variables, due to Euler-lagrange, etc.) When we take the partial derivative w.r.t. the function ($x$) of the derivative of the function ($x'$), I always see these derivative treated as zero (ex1 ex2), citing that partial derivates keep everything else constant and $x'$ is not an explicit function of $x$. $$ x = g(y) \\ x' = \frac{d}{dy} x $$ $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x} x' = 0 $$ and $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x'} x = 0 $$

What are the conditions under which this kind of thing is true in general? Just what are the conditions of 'implicitness' that allow these partial-derivatives to be zero? Specifically, I want to know if this is also true for the inverse function.

$$ x^{-1}(x(y)) = y $$ $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x} x^{-1} =^{(??)} 0 $$ and $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x'} x^{-1} =^{(??)} 0 $$

The following are other discussion, approx. in order of decreasing helpfulness, of similar questions. But none of them reach a definitive answer which applies to my question (at least that I can understand).

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I am asking this for the purpose of solving the same question I asked here. But, this more basic and general detail was not receiving attention and I felt it more appropriate to ask it here in a separate question. I am also asking a different question about partial derivatives integration-under-the-integral here for the same problem.

Tejovan
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  • If $x=y^2$ and $x’=2y$, then it should be that $(\frac {x’}2)^2=x$ and $\frac{\partial x}{\partial x’}=\frac{\partial y^2}{2\partial {y}}=y$. This question uses the chain rule to find $\frac{df}{dg}$ – Тyma Gaidash Jan 17 '25 at 19:13
  • I see what you are saying and it seems to make sense. Which is very confusing, since it seems directly in contradiction to what is done in all of the example calculus of variations problems I have looked at (and linked in the question as ex1 ex2 and wikipedia) – Tejovan Jan 17 '25 at 21:49

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As you know already, derivatives measure how a quantity varies with respect to another variable. Actually, partial derivatives take into account direct contributions only, while total derivatives include indirect contributions too through the chain rule.

Let's illustrate this matter of fact by taking a bivariate function $f(x,y)$ as an example. Its differential, which corresponds to an infinitesimal variation of $f$, is given by $$ \mathrm{d}f(x,y) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x + \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\mathrm{d}y. $$ Here, $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ tells you how much the function $f$ varies when its first variable evolves from $x$ to $x + \mathrm{d}x$ independently of $y$, and the same goes for the second term mutatis mutandis. Now, let's suppose you want to compute the total derivative of $f$ with respect to $x$, i.e. $$ \frac{\mathrm{d}f}{\mathrm{d}x} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}. $$ As you can observe, the contributions to the said total derivative consist in the direct contribution of $x$ through the associated partial derivative, as well as the indirect contribution of $y$ as a function of $x$ through the chain rule $-$ the factor $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ being the direct contribution to the variation of $f$ by $y$ and $\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}x}$ the one of $y$ by $x$.

In conclusion, since partial derivatives measure "direct" variation rates only, all the other variables have to be considered as constant parameters.


Addendum. Since I haven't subscribed to MathOverflow, I will leave here a few words about your concerns discussed originally in this post.

Firstly, note that the functional derivative is the infinite-dimensional analog of the total derivative. In consequence, as you foresaw, in the case of a functional depending on the inverse function, namely $$ S[x] = \int L(t,x(t),x^{-1}(t)) \,\mathrm{d}t $$ in the present case, the contribution of $x^{-1}(t)$ to the functional differential of $S[x]$ cannot be ignored. However, analogously to the classical case, the said contribution doesn't originate from the partial derivative of $L$ with respect to $x$, but it will come from the chain rule and the derivative with respect to $x^{-1}$ itself. More concretely, one has : $$ \delta S[x] = \int \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}\delta x(t) + \frac{\partial L}{\partial x^{-1}}\delta x^{-1}(t)\right)\mathrm{d}t $$ Now, the inverse function function may be reinterpreted as the $(-1)^\mathrm{th}$ iterate. You may prove (see here for a brief introduction) that the functional derivative of a function composed $n$-times with itself is given by $$ \frac{\delta x^{\circ n}(t)}{\delta x(\tau)} = \dot{x}(x^{\circ(n-1)}(t)) \frac{\delta x^{\circ(n-1)}(t)}{\delta x(\tau)} + \delta(x^{\circ(n-1)}(t)-\tau). $$ The first term is produced by nothing else than the (functional) chain rule, while the second one is due to the "fixed points" of $x(t)$ together with the rule $\frac{\delta f(x)}{\delta f(y)} = \delta(x-y)$. In the present case, it leads to $$ \frac{\delta x^{-1}(t)}{\delta x(\tau)} = -\frac{\delta(x^{-1}(t)-\tau)}{\dot{x}(x^{-1}(t))} $$ when taking $n = 0$, hence finally $$ \frac{\delta S[x]}{\delta x(\tau)} = \left.\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}\right|_{t=\tau} - \int \left.\frac{\partial L}{\partial x^{-1}}\right|_t \frac{\delta(x^{-1}(t)-\tau)}{\dot{x}(x^{-1}(t))} \,\mathrm{d}t. $$

In an alternative point of view, it has to be highlighted that the inverse function may be eliminated with the help of a change of variable. Indeed, since $x(t)$ is assumed to be invertible, you might work with the variable $t = f(x)$ instead, hence $x^{-1}(t) = f(t) = f(f(x))$, so that $$ S[t] = \int L(t,x(t),x^{-1}(t)) \,\mathrm{d}t = \int L(f(x),x,f^2(x)) f'(x)\mathrm{d}x, $$ where $f^2 = f \circ f$. Consequently, your problem is described equivalently by the following Lagrangian $\tilde{L}(x,f,f^2,f') := f'(x)L(f(x),x,f^2(x))$, where the inverse function has been traded for a second iterate and which can be now extremized with respect to the function $f$.

Abezhiko
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  • Thanks you very much for all this. It will take me some time to work with the addendum and see if I can deploy what you suggest successfully. – Tejovan Jan 22 '25 at 02:06
  • One question I have now relates to before the addendum. I see what you are saying, but I do not know how to take that to an answer to the specific case of $\frac{\partial}{\partial x} x^{-1}$. Perhaps this is because this is poorly defined question? Maybe this idea of a direct contribution becomes unclear when the $x$ is a function? I could try the limit def of partial derivatives, but of course would rather not if there's a quicker or more well known way to answer. – Tejovan Jan 22 '25 at 02:06
  • @Tejovan. The question is a little bit ambiguous indeed, since the notation might be contextual. Also, the considered expression wouldn't be differentiated straighrforwardly in practice but after substitution usually. Nevertheless, I would recommend to take $\frac{\partial x^{-1}}{\partial x} = 0$ but $\frac{\mathrm{d}x^{-1}}{\mathrm{d}x} = \frac{1}{\dot{x} \circ x^{-1}}$. – Abezhiko Jan 23 '25 at 04:44