Similar post, but opposite conclusion?
I have a function $x(t)$ and its derivative as a function of other variables$\frac{dx}{dt}(x(t))$ (a differential equation?) and I want to find $\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\frac{dx}{dt}$. The linked post above says this is zero, and I can see where they are coming from swapping the order of the derivatives. However, I just don't believe it, I have likely misunderstood their point. For instance, say $\frac{dx}{dt}=x^2$. This is easily solvable, e.g. $x=\frac{-1}{t}$. But $\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{dx}{dt}=2x$ which is not zero in general. Yet $\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{d}{dt}x=\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}x=\frac{d}{dt}1=0$? What goes wrong here?
EDIT: is it because $x$ is a function of $t$? So we cant swap them?