17

I am trying to generalize the triangle inequality in probabilistic terms. Assume that the vertices are uniformly distributed around the circumference of a fixed circle. In this question it was proved that if $(a,b,c)$ are the sides of a triangle than the probability that geometric mean of any two sides is greater than the third side i.e. $P\left(\sqrt{ab} > c\right) = \frac{2}{5}$. Since $a+b > 2\sqrt{ab}$, it implies that probability that $P(a+b > 2c) > \frac{2}{5}$. In general, we can ask:

Question: If $(a,b,c)$ are the sides of a triangle and $x \ge 1$, what is the probability that $a+b > cx$?

Equivalence with the Basel's Problem: The series in the accepted answer is actually the Lengendre Chi function $\chi_2\left(\frac1{x}\right)$; hence

$$ P(a+b > cx) = \frac{8}{\pi^2}\chi_2\left(\frac1{x}\right) $$

Taking $x = 1$ and applying the fact that the sum of the reciprocal of odd squares is $3/4$-th the sum over the reciprocal of the squares of natural numbers we find that the probability that the sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than than the third side is $\displaystyle \frac{6\zeta(2)}{\pi^2}$. Since this probability must be $1$ and the proof does not require the value of $\zeta(2)$ to be known in advance, it unexpectedly shows that:

The triangle inequality equivalent to the Basel Problem $$ 1 + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \cdots = \frac{\pi^2}{6} $$

I have changed the title to reflect this remarkable connection.

Related question: If $(a,b,c)$ are the sides of a triangle, is it true that probability that $a+b > c^{\frac{3}{c}}$ is $\zeta(2)-1$?

  • If you plot $1/P$, what does the graph look like? – Empy2 Jan 07 '24 at 15:22
  • 2
    What you found is not a pdf. It is the complementary function of the random variable $X=\frac{a+b}{c}$, that is, $\bar{F}_X(x)=1-F_X(x)$, with $F_X(x)$ denoting the cdf of $X$, so the area under the curve can be larger than 1. – Amir Jan 07 '24 at 20:52
  • @NilotpalSinha https://mathworld.wolfram.com/DiscreteFourierTransform.html see Ex.kurtosis – Barackouda Jan 08 '24 at 16:57
  • It is better to focus on the first problem in the title; the new title is not suitable for a question ( you can add a short subtitle). – Amir Jan 09 '24 at 10:00

3 Answers3

10

I have a formula for the probability, which for large $x$ is roughly $$\frac4{\pi^2}\left(\frac2x+\frac2{9x^3}+\frac2{25x^5}+\cdots\right)$$ The series continues in the same form up to at least the $x^{-11}$ term. There is an integral form at the end of this answer.

Solution:

The angles in the triangle are all twice the corresponding angles at the centre of the circle. So the trio of angles $(\alpha,\beta,\gamma)$ is equally distributed over the flat region in 3space with vertices $(\pi,0, 0),(0,\pi,0),(0,0,\pi)$.
The area of a triangle with sides $a,b,c$ and angles $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$ is $$\Delta=\frac12ab\sin\gamma=\frac12ca\sin\beta=\frac12bc\sin\alpha$$
So for example $a=\frac{abc}{2\Delta}\sin\alpha$, and the ratio we want is $$\frac{a+b}c=\frac{\sin\alpha+\sin\beta}{\sin\gamma}\\=\frac{2\sin\frac{\alpha+\beta}2\cos\frac{\alpha-\beta}2}{\sin(\alpha+\beta)}\\ =\frac{\cos\frac{\alpha-\beta}2}{\cos\frac{\alpha+\beta}2}$$
The region of interest is $0\le\alpha,0\le \beta,\alpha+\beta\le\pi$. Change variables to $$\theta=\frac{\alpha+\beta}2,\phi=\frac{\alpha-\beta}2$$
The region is now $$0\le\theta\le\pi/2,\\-\theta\le\phi\le\theta$$ with area $\pi^2/4$.
The ratio of interest is greater than $x$ when $$\cos\theta\lt\frac{\cos\phi}x$$
For a given $\phi$, Theta ranges over an interval of length $$\pi/2-\arccos(\frac{\cos\phi}x)\\=\arcsin(\frac{\cos\phi}x)$$
Integrate that over the region to give $$\frac4{\pi^2}\int^{\pi/2}_{-\pi/2}\arcsin(\frac{\cos\phi}x)d\phi$$
I used a series expansion in arcsine $x+\frac{x^3}6+\frac{3x^5}{40}+\cdots$ to get the series at the top.

Empy2
  • 52,372
  • Could you find a closed form fromula for the pdf by derivating with respect to $x$? – Amir Jan 08 '24 at 16:40
  • 1
    @Amir Wolfram says it is $\frac8{\pi^2}\tanh^{-1}(1/x)/x$ – Empy2 Jan 08 '24 at 17:14
  • @Empy2 When you say large $x$, how large will $x$ have to be for this formula to give an estimate of $P(a+b>cx)$ ? – Nilotpal Sinha Jan 08 '24 at 17:27
  • The limit as $x\to1$ is $1$, as hoped, so perhaps it works for all $x\ge1$ – Empy2 Jan 08 '24 at 17:28
  • Are the denominator's the squares of odd natural numbers of the first few terms are a co-incidence? If they are indeed the odd squares then identities involving $\zeta(2)$ show the at $x=1$, the sum of the series is exactly $1$ as expected. – Nilotpal Sinha Jan 08 '24 at 17:35
  • 2
    So it implies the famous triangle inequality $a+b>c$ is equivalent to the Euler's famous Basel problem $1 + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \cdots = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$. Wow !!!! – Nilotpal Sinha Jan 08 '24 at 17:53
  • @NilotpalSinha You may inculde a plot of both for a comparison. – Amir Jan 08 '24 at 17:53
  • The series expansion for arcsin works when the input is in $[-1,1]$, so in our case as long as $x\ge 1$. So what's to stop this answer from working for all $x$? Is there a subtlety with the convergence to look out for? – Milten Jan 08 '24 at 18:07
  • However, inputting some numbers, this result doesn't seem to match very well at all with the linear graph ($1/P(x)$) in the question... – Milten Jan 08 '24 at 18:39
  • 2
    @Empy2 The series is actually the Legendre Chi function. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_chi_function – Nilotpal Sinha Jan 09 '24 at 11:41
  • @Empy2 Hi, I am thinking about a short paper highlighting the equivalence of the famous Basel problem and the basic triangle inequality (plus other things connecting number theory with triangles). Your solution is the main ingredient for the first part. I would like to include your proof and give you full credits for it. Let me know in case of any issues. – Nilotpal Sinha Mar 25 '24 at 12:21
  • 1
    @NilotpalSinha That's fine, there are no issues I know of. – Empy2 Mar 25 '24 at 14:20
7

The posted code is wrong. I've refactored/bugfixed it slightly and the asymptotic value is in fact $8 / \pi^2$. The issue with sorting angles is that $a$ will be too small compared to $c$ (compared to if $a, b, c$ were generated from uniformly selected points and not ordered themselves).

from math import pi

import numpy as np

k = 2 * np.pi n = 10**5 x = 1.0 max = 50 inc = 0.5

just run n trials for each value of x instead

while x < max: success = 0 for _ in range(1, n): # remove the sort angles = np.random.uniform(0, k, 3)

    vertices_x = np.cos(angles)
    vertices_y = np.sin(angles)

    vertices_x = np.append(vertices_x, vertices_x[0])
    vertices_y = np.append(vertices_y, vertices_y[0])

    x_diff = np.diff(vertices_x)
    y_diff = np.diff(vertices_y)
    side_lengths = np.sqrt(x_diff ** 2 + y_diff ** 2)

    a = side_lengths[0]
    b = side_lengths[1]
    c = side_lengths[2]

    if a + b &gt; x * c:
        success += 1

print(f'x: {x:.4f}'[:-1], f'x * P(x): {x * success / n:.10f}'[:-1], f'8/pi^2: {8 / pi ** 2}')

x += 0.5

Sample output:

x: 1.000 x * P(x): 0.999990000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 1.500 x * P(x): 0.861450000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 2.000 x * P(x): 0.830600000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 2.500 x * P(x): 0.830900000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 3.000 x * P(x): 0.825840000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 3.500 x * P(x): 0.817775000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 4.000 x * P(x): 0.818160000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 4.500 x * P(x): 0.814860000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 5.000 x * P(x): 0.818700000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 5.500 x * P(x): 0.818895000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 6.000 x * P(x): 0.804540000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 6.500 x * P(x): 0.800540000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 7.000 x * P(x): 0.809200000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 7.500 x * P(x): 0.809550000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 8.000 x * P(x): 0.808240000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 8.500 x * P(x): 0.808520000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 9.000 x * P(x): 0.815310000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 9.500 x * P(x): 0.797240000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 10.000 x * P(x): 0.815900000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 10.500 x * P(x): 0.802200000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 11.000 x * P(x): 0.827090000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 11.500 x * P(x): 0.813280000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 12.000 x * P(x): 0.818640000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 12.500 x * P(x): 0.813875000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 13.000 x * P(x): 0.815750000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 13.500 x * P(x): 0.806895000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 14.000 x * P(x): 0.832300000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 14.500 x * P(x): 0.802865000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 15.000 x * P(x): 0.823050000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 15.500 x * P(x): 0.805225000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 16.000 x * P(x): 0.816480000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 16.500 x * P(x): 0.805035000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
x: 17.000 x * P(x): 0.801380000 8/pi^2: 0.8105694691387022
```
daisies
  • 2,063
  • 2
  • 7
-2

I make a connection with a famous problem the disk triangle picking see

Dtp

dtp

Note that the probability decrease as the graph of the Op .

Barackouda
  • 3,879
  • Why a downvote ? – Barackouda Jan 09 '24 at 10:31
  • 2
    The graph in this question shows $P(a+b > cx)$ as a function of $x$. The graph in https://mathworld.wolfram.com/DiskTrianglePicking.html shows $P(A)$ as a function of $A$. Can you elaborate how these problems are connected? Or do the graphs just look similar by coincidence? – Martin R Jan 09 '24 at 13:50
  • Dear Martin ask you which as follow : what is independent in $a+b>cx$ ? How write area in term of side ? What's give a bit of algebra ? – Barackouda Jan 09 '24 at 17:25