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According to the generic theory of linear diffusion processes, i.e time homogeneous Markov processes with independent increments

Itô, Kiyosi; McKean, Henry P. jun., Diffusion processes and their sample paths., Classics in Mathematics. Berlin: Springer-Verlag. xviii, 326 p. (1996). ZBL0837.60001.; section 4.6, Solving ${\mathfrak G} u = \alpha u$, page 128

the Laplace transform $u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) := E\left[ e^{-\alpha \tau_b} | X_0 = x \right]$ of the first hitting time $\tau_b := \inf\{t >0 | X_t > b\} $ of a barrier $b > x >0 $ is given as a unique solution to the following Sturm-Liouville value problem:

\begin{eqnarray} {\mathfrak G} u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) &=& \alpha \cdot u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) \tag{1} \\ \left.u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) \right|_{x=b} =1, && \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow -\infty} u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) = 0 \tag{2} \end{eqnarray}

where ${\mathfrak G}$ is the infinitesimal generator of the process, i.e. ${\mathfrak G} u := \lim\limits_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} \frac{E_{\cdot} \left[ u(X_\epsilon) | X_0 = x \right] - u }{\epsilon}$ for some smooth function $u : \Omega \rightarrow {\mathbb R} $ with $\Omega$ being the space of events.

We can also find the statement of this theorem in

Alili, L.; Patie, P.; Pedersen, J. L., Representations of the first hitting time density of an Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process, Stoch. Models 21, No. 4, 967-980 (2005). ZBL1083.60064.; Proposition 2.1 page 2-3.


Now, what I did is the following. I decided to apply the result above to some diffusion processes and verify it by a Monte Carlo simulation.In doing so I come to conflicting results and I would like to understand what it is that I did wrong. Here we go:

The geometric Brownian motion:

Here $dX_t = \mu_0 X_t dt + X_t dB_t$ where $B_t$ is the Brownian motion and $\mu_0 \le 1/2$. For this process the infinitesimal generator reads ${\mathfrak G} = \mu_0 x d/dx + 1/2 x^2 d^2/d x^2 $. As such equation $(1)$ takes the following form:

\begin{equation} \left[ \mu_0 x \frac{d}{d x} + \frac{1}{2} x^2 \frac{d^2}{d x^2} \right] u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) = \alpha \cdot u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) \tag{3} \end{equation}

This is an Euler equation so the trial $x^\zeta$ leads to a solution where $\mu_0 \zeta + 1/2 \zeta (\zeta-1) = \alpha $ which is solved by $\zeta = (1/2 - \mu_0) \pm 1/2 \sqrt{(1-2 \mu_0)^2 + 8 \alpha} $. The first boundary condition in $(2)$ leads to the following solution:

\begin{equation} u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) = \left( \frac{x}{b} \right)^\zeta = \left( \frac{x}{b} \right)^{\frac{1}{2} - \mu_0 \pm \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{(1-2 \mu_0)^2 + 8 \alpha}} \tag{4} \end{equation}

From the normalization, i.e. $u_0^{(b)}(x) = 1$ it follows that we need to take the $-$-solution. In this case we also easily verify that the second boundary condition in $(2)$ is satisfied whenever $\alpha > 0 $ as it should be. Therefore the final solution reads:

\begin{equation} u_\alpha^{(b)}(x) =\left( \frac{x}{b} \right)^{\frac{1}{2} - \mu_0 } \cdot \exp\left(-\frac{1}{2} \log(\frac{x}{b}) \sqrt{(1-2 \mu_0)^2 + 8 \alpha}) \right) \tag{5} \end{equation} for $x \le b$.

This is all very good but now I am saying that the function in $(5)$ is not a valid Laplace transform when $x \le b$! By inverting we have:

\begin{eqnarray} \rho_{\tau_b}(t) &:=& {\mathcal L}^{-1}_\alpha \left[ u_\alpha^{(b)}(x)\right](t) \\ &=& \left( \frac{x}{b} \right)^{\frac{1}{2} - \mu_0 } \cdot \frac{1}{8} e^{-\frac{1}{2} (\mu_0 - \frac{1}{2})^2 t} \underline{ {\mathcal L}^{-1}_\alpha \left[ e^{-\frac{1}{2} \log(\frac{x}{b} ) \sqrt{\alpha}} \right](\frac{t}{8})} \tag{6} \end{eqnarray}

We can clearly see that the underlined quantity above does not exist when $ x < b $. Indeed we have ${\mathcal L}^{-1}_\alpha \left[ e^{-A \sqrt{\alpha}} \right](t) = A/(2 \sqrt{\pi} t^{3/2}) \exp(-A^2/(4 t)) 1_{A>0}$. The inverse Laplace transform in question exists only if the boundary value is smaller than the first price contrary to the assumption that we have, i.e. $ x < b $! However, if we forget about this problem and simply replace $\log(\frac{x}{b} ) \rightarrow \log(\frac{b}{x} ) $ in equation $(6)$ then we obtain:

\begin{equation} \rho_{\tau_b}(t) := \frac{\log(\frac{b}{x})}{\sqrt{2 \pi t^3}} \cdot \exp\left( -\frac{1}{2 t} \left[ \log(\frac{b}{x}) - (\mu_0-\frac{1}{2} ) t\right]^2\right) \tag{7} \end{equation}

Clearly $(7)$ is the correct result as the Monte Carlo simulation below demonstrates:

(*Monte Carlo simulation of 1st hitting time distribution.*)

mu0 = 1; Clear[Bs]; x = Exp[3/2]; b = Exp[2]; NN = 750; numInst = 50000; dt = 1/256 ; myHist = {}; Do[ Bs = RandomVariate[NormalDistribution[0, 1], NN]; Xs = Drop[FoldList[#1 + mu0 #1 dt + #1 #2 Sqrt[dt] &, x, Bs], -1]; ts = dt Range[1, NN]; tHit = Min[Flatten[Position[Sign[Xs - b], _?(# == 1 &), 1]]] dt; myHist = Join[myHist, {tHit}]; If[Mod[which, 5000] == 0, PrintTemporary[which]]; , {which, 1, numInst}];

b = Exp[2]; line1 = Line[{{tHit, 0}, {tHit, b}}]; line2 = Line[{{0, b}, {tHit, b}}]; pl1 = ListPlot[Transpose[{ts, Xs}], Joined :> True, PlotMarkers -> Automatic, Epilog -> {line1, line2}, AxesLabel :> {"t", "X[t]"}];

b =.; pl20 = Histogram[myHist, {0, NN dt, 0.05}, "PDF", AxesLabel -> {Subscript[[Tau], b], Subscript[[Rho], Subscript[[Tau], b]]}]; b = Exp[2]; mpdf[t_, x_, b_, mu0_] := 1/Sqrt[2 Pi] Log[b/x] 1/ t^(3/2) Exp[-1/(2 t) (Log[b/x] - (mu0 - 1/2) t)^2]; pl21 = Plot[mpdf[t, x, b, mu0], {t, 0, NN dt}, PlotRange :> All]; b =.; pl2 = Show[pl20, pl21];

GraphicsGrid[{{pl1, pl2}}]

enter image description here


Where is the error in my understanding of the results of the theory of linear diffusion processes?

Przemo
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  • The mistake I made was that I erroneously took the minus sign in equation (4) instead of taking the plus sign. If you look at the proof of the theorem in question (see section 4.6 page 129) in Ito&McKean then you see that if $x<b$ (or $x>b$) then the Laplace transform equals $u_\alpha^{(b)}(x)/u_\alpha^{(b)}(b)$ where $u(x)$ is a unique , strictly increasing (or decreasing) eigen-function of the infinitesimal generator to the eigenvalue $\alpha$. The choice of the plus sign is therefore obvious. The normalization can be then enforced by a multiplicative constant. – Przemo Mar 20 '24 at 14:31

2 Answers2

1

For Brownian motion with drift, $W_s^{(\mu)}=\mu s+W_s\,,$ the formula $$\tag{1} \mathbb E_x\Big[e^{-\alpha\tau_b}\Big]=e^{\mu(b-x)-|b-x|\sqrt{2\alpha+\mu^2}} $$ can be found on p. 223 of [1]. Since the logarithm of geometric Brownian motion, $$\tag{2} X_t=X_0e^{\sigma W_t+\mu_0\,t-\frac{\sigma^2}{2}t}\,, $$ is $\sigma$ times a BM $W_s^{(\mu)}$ with drift $\mu=\frac{\mu_0}{\sigma}-\frac{\sigma}{2}$ and since \begin{align} X_t=b\quad \Longleftrightarrow\quad W_t^{(\mu)}=\frac{\log b}{\sigma} \end{align} the formula (1) becomes \begin{align}\tag{3} \mathbb E_x\Big[e^{-\alpha\tau_b}\Big]&=\exp\Bigg\{\mu\,\frac{\log(b/x)}{\sigma}-\Bigg|\frac{\log(b/x)}{\sigma}\Bigg|\sqrt{2\alpha+\mu^2}\Bigg\}\,. \end{align} Please compare this with your formulas. In your case, $\sigma=1/2\,.$ Somehow I don't see the $|\,.|$ around the $\log$ in your (5). This could be the heart of the problem.

A. Borodin, P. Salminen, Handbook of Brownian Motion - Facts and Formulae, Birkhäuser 1996.

Kurt G.
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  • @ Kurt G Two things. Firstly, I double checked that the conditions $(1)$,$(2)$ (in my question) are quite generic (Markov property and time homogeneous iid increments) but they correspond to the case $ x < b $ only. Secondly, a 2nd order ODE has two independent solutions (see the quadratic equation for $\zeta$) and I just took the wrong one . In our case we have to take to $+$ solution not the $-$ one that I took. Then my solution matches yours and the Bromwich integral exists. This solves the problem. Thanks. – Przemo Feb 23 '23 at 13:24
  • @Przemo Great. BTW congrats for reading one of the hardest to read classics about stochastic processes (Ito, McKean). I never managed that and waited for more modern treatments. – Kurt G. Feb 23 '23 at 16:41
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My problem has already been resolved-- see comment to the answer by Kurt G above but I just wanted to use the opportunity to post a (preliminary)solution to a generalized problem.

In all what is below we assume that the first price is smaller than the barrier $0< x< b$ and that the drift is bigger than one half $\mu_0 > 1/2$.

The elasticity of variance model :

Here $d X_t = \mu_ 0 X_t^{2\theta - 1} dt + X_t^\theta d B_t $ where $\theta\in[1/2, 1] $, $\mu_ 0 \in {\mathbb R} $ and with $B_t$ being the Brownian motion.For this process the
infinitesimal generator reads $ {\mathfrak G} = \mu_ 0 x^{2\theta - 1} d/dx + 1/2 x^{2\theta} d^2/ d x^2 $. As such equation $ (1) $ takes the following form :

\begin{equation} \left[ \mu_ 0 x^{2\theta - 1}\frac {d} {d x} + \frac {1} {2} x^{2\theta}\frac {d^2} {d x^2} \right] u_\alpha^{(b)} (x) = \alpha\cdot u_\alpha^{(b)} (x)\tag{3a} \end{equation}

By using the power series expansion method it is not hard to see that the (unique) solution takes the following form :

\begin{equation} u_\alpha^{(b)} (x) = \left ( \frac {x} {b} \right)^{\frac {1}{2} - \mu_0}\cdot\frac{I_{-\nu}\left[\frac{x^{1 - \theta}} {1 - \theta}\sqrt {2\alpha} \right]}{I_{-\nu}\left[\frac {b^{1 - \theta}}{1 - \theta}\sqrt{2\alpha} \right]}\tag{4a} \end{equation}

where $ \nu := (1/2 - \mu_ 0)/(1 - \theta) $ and $I_ \nu[] $ is the modified Bessel function of the first kind.The fact that equation $ (4 a) $ satisfies the ODE $ (1) $ is proven by the following line of code below :

In[56]:= Clear[u]; x =.; b =.; alpha =.; mu0 =.;
nu =.;
(*The elasticity of variance model.*)
res = ((mu0 x^(2 th - 1) D[#, x] + 1/2 x^(2 th) D[#, {x, 2}] - 
        alpha #) & /@ {(x/b)^(1/2 - mu0) BesselI[-nu, 
         x^(1 - th)/(1 - th) Sqrt[2 alpha]]/
        BesselI[-nu, b^(1 - th)/(1 - th) Sqrt[2 alpha]]}) // 
   FullSimplify;
(res /. nu :> (1/2 - mu0)/(1 - th)) // Simplify

Out[59]= {0}

Now, the fact that the quantity in $(4a)$ is a proper Laplace transform follows in a straightforward manner. Firstly from $I_\nu(x) = \frac{2^{-\nu } x^{\nu }}{\Gamma (\nu +1)}(1+O(x^2))$ as $x \rightarrow 0_-$ we see that the distribution of the first hitting time is normalized to one. Secondly, from the appropriate asymptotic expansion see here we see that the Bromwich integral exists.

Now, all what we need to do is to invert the Laplace transform $(4a)$ analytically. By using the asymptotic expansion of the modified Bessel function of the first kind and the result for the Laplace transform from here we obtain the following closed form result:

\begin{eqnarray} &&\rho_{\tau_b}(t) = \\ && \sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty (1-\theta)^n \sum\limits_{j=-(3n-1) 1_{n\ge 1}}^n {\mathfrak A}_{n,j}^{(\mu_0,x,b)} \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}} \rho \left[ \frac{\log(\frac{b}{x}) - (\mu_0-\frac{1}{2}) t}{\sqrt{t}}\right] \cdot \frac{1}{(2 t)^{\frac{j+1}{2}}} \cdot H_{j+1}\left[ \frac{\log(\frac{b}{x})}{\sqrt{2 t}}\right] \tag{5a} \end{eqnarray} where $\rho(x) : =\exp(-x^2/2)/\sqrt{2\pi}$ is the Gaussian density and $H_{j}[\cdot]$ are Hermite polynomials. In addition to that the coefficients $\left( {\mathfrak A}_{n,j}^{(\mu_0,x,b)} \right)_{n=0,j=-(3n-1) 1_{n\ge 1}}^{\infty,n}$ are certain multinomials in variables $(\mu_,x,b)$ only. We have generated those multinomials to the third order, $n\le 3$, and we show them below:

enter image description here

Curiously enough it turns out that $\sum\limits_{j=-(3n-1) 1_{n\ge 1}}^n {\mathfrak A}_{n,j}^{(\mu_0,x,b)} (\mu_0-1/2)^j = \delta_{n,0}$ for $n=0,1,2,\cdots$ and as such, in $(5a)$, the $n=0$-mode integrates to unity and all the higher $n\ge 1$ modes integrate to zero.

Now we show that the quantity in $(5a)$ matches perfectly the Monte Carlo simulation of the model in question. We took the same parameters as in the simulation of the geometric Brownian motion , i.e. $x,b,\mu_0 = \exp(3/2), \exp(2), 1$ then we took the exponent $\theta = 0.9$ and we ran the simulation in the same way as in the body of the question above. Here we go:

(*Monte Carlo simulation of 1st hitting time distribution for the \
elasticity of variance model.*)
{x, b, mu0} = {Exp[3/2], Exp[2], 1};
th = 9/10; g = 0; dt = 1/256 ; NN = 1500; numInst = 50000;
nu = (1/2 - mu0)/(1 - th);

(Run simulation) myHist = {}; Do[ Bs = RandomVariate[NormalDistribution[0, 1], NN]; Xs = Drop[ FoldList[#1 + mu0 #1^(2 th - 1) dt + #1^(th) #2 Sqrt[dt] &, x, Bs], -1]; ts = dt Range[1, NN]; tHit = Min[Flatten[Position[Sign[Xs - b], _?(# == 1 &), 1]]] dt; myHist = Join[myHist, {tHit}]; If[Mod[which, 5000] == 0, PrintTemporary[which]]; , {which, 1, numInst}]; B =.; pl2a = Histogram[myHist, {0, NN dt, 0.05}, "PDF", AxesLabel -> {Subscript[[Tau], B], Subscript[[Rho], Subscript[[Tau], B]]}]; line1 = Line[{{tHit, 0}, {tHit, b}}]; line2 = Line[{{0, b}, {tHit, b}}]; pl1 = ListPlot[Transpose[{ts, Xs}], Joined :> True, PlotMarkers -> Automatic, Epilog -> {line1, line2}, AxesLabel :> {"t", "X[t]"}];

(Find result theoretically) {x, b, mu0} = {Exp[3/2], Exp[2], 1}; th = 0.9; ts = Array[10^# &, 100, {-2, 1/2}]; (* vals=Map[Function[t,1/(2 Pi) ( NIntegrate[ Exp[(I alpha+g) t] (x/b)^(1/2-mu0)
BesselI[-nu,x^(1-th)/(1-th) Sqrt[2 (I alpha+g)]]/
BesselI[-nu,b^(1-th)/(1-th) Sqrt[2 (I
alpha+g)]],{alpha,-Infinity,Infinity},WorkingPrecision[Rule]12,
PrecisionGoal[Rule]15] )],ts]; pl2b=ListPlot[Transpose[{ts,Re@vals}],PlotRange[RuleDelayed]All,
PlotStyle[RuleDelayed]Blue]; *)

Clear[mpdf]; t =.; mpdf[t_, mu0_, x_, b_] := Total[Flatten@ Table[(1 - th)^n mat[[1 + n, 1 + If[n == 0, 0, (3 n - 1)] + j]] 1/ Sqrt[t] rho[(Log[b/x] - (mu0 - 1/2) t)/Sqrt[t]] HermiteH[j + 1, Log[b/x]/Sqrt[2 t]]/(2 t)^(j/2 + 1/2), {n, 0, M}, {j, If[n == 0, 0, -(3 n - 1)], n}]]; vals1 = Map[Function[t, N@mpdf[t, mu0, x, b]], ts]; pl2c = ListPlot[Transpose[{ts, vals1}], PlotRange :> All, PlotStyle :> Purple];

pl2 = Show[pl2a, pl2c]; GraphicsGrid[{{pl1, pl2}}]

enter image description here

As you can see the analytical inverse Laplace transform in $(5a)$ matches the histogram of the first hitting times (the purple dots match the yellow bars in the right plot).

Przemo
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