Let $X^n = (X^n_1, \dots, X^n_d) ~ q^n$ be a $d$-dimensional random variable, where all the components are independent. That is, $X_i \perp X_j$ for $i\neq j$, and $$q^n(X) = \prod_{i=1}^d q^n_i(X^n_i).$$
If the sequence of measures $q^n$ converges weakly to some $q^*$, then are the resulting marginals also independent? I.e., is $$q^*(X)= \prod_{i=1}^d q^*_i?$$
Edit: convergence of marginals/joints
Let the state space be $\Omega^d$, and $\Omega$ be the state space of each component (i.e. $X_i \in \Omega$ for all $i$).
If $q^n \xrightarrow{w} q$, then by definition of weak convergence, $$\int f(X) q^n(dX) \rightarrow \int f(X) q(dX) \;\; \text{ for all } f \in C_b(\Omega^d) \;\;\; \text{ as }n\rightarrow \infty.$$
Since we can take $f$ to have any support in $\Omega^d$, the above convergence of integrals holds for any combination of components; for example if $f$ has support on the first component only, then $$\int_\Omega f(X_1) q^n_1(dX_1) \rightarrow \int_\Omega f(X_1) q(dX_1).$$
I.e. the marginals converge. This is also true for any joint, e.g. $q^n(X_1,X_2) \xrightarrow{w} q(X_1,X_2)$.
Since $q^n(X_i|X_j)q^n(X_j) = q^n(X_i,X_j)$, and we know that $q^n(X_i,X_j) \xrightarrow{w} q(X_i,X_j)$ and $q^n(X_i) \xrightarrow{w} q(X_i)$, then it seems like $q^n(X_1|X_2) \xrightarrow{w} q(X_1|X_2)$ would be true.
Here's an attempt: for all $X_2 \in \Omega$, \begin{align} \int q^n(X_1|X_2)f(X_1) dX_1 &= \int \frac{q^n(X_1,X_2)}{q^n(X_2)}f(X_1)dX_1 \\ &= \frac{1}{q^n(X_2)} \int q^n(X_1,X_2)f(X_1)dX_1 \\ &\rightarrow \frac{1}{q^n(X_2)} \int q(X_1,X_2)f(X_1)dX_1 \\ &\stackrel{?}{\rightarrow} \frac{1}{q(X_2)} \int q(X_1,X_2)f(X_1)dX_1 \\ &= \int q(X_1|X_2)f(X_1)dX_1 \end{align}
I don't think "$\stackrel{?}{\rightarrow}$" is valid under weak convergence since this would require pointwise convergence. Is this where the proof breaks?