Suppose a sequence of random vectors $(X_n,Y_n)$ converges jointly to some $(X,Y)$ in the weak topology. Question: If $X_n$ and $Y_n$ are independent for all $n$, are also $X$ and $Y$ independent?
This question has been answered in 1 under some hypothesis on the state space. However, since weak convergence only concerns the laws, and since independence can be inferred from the joint law, I feel like it should hold without any hypothesis on the state space.
The following seems to establish the answer if the random variables take values in separable metric spaces with their Borel $\sigma$-algebra, which we denote $(\mathcal{S}_1,\mathcal{B}_1)$ and $(\mathcal{S}_2,\mathcal{B}_2)$. We remark that the Borel $\sigma$-algebra of $\mathcal{S}_1 \times \mathcal{S}_2$ is generated by the Cartesian product of Borel sets, by separability.
Let $\mu_n$ be the law of $(X_n,Y_n)$ and let $\mu_n^1$, $\mu_n^2$ be the marginals. Denote their weak limits by $\mu$ and $\mu^1$, $\mu^2$. Consider $$ \mathcal{C} = \{ A \times B \colon A \in \mathcal{B}_1 , B \in \mathcal{B}_2, \mu^1(\partial A) = 0 = \mu^2(\partial B) \}. $$ Note that $$ \mu(\partial (A \times B)) \leq \mu(\partial A \times B) + \mu(A \times \partial B) \leq \mu^1(\partial A) + \mu^2(\partial B) = 0 $$ for $A \times B \in \mathcal{C}$. Thus, sets in $\mathcal{C}$ are sets of continuity for the measures $\mu^1$, $\mu^2$ and $\mu$, so by the Portmanteau theorem \begin{equation} \begin{split} \mathbb{P}( X \in A, Y \in B ) &= \mathbb{P}( (X,Y) \in A \times B ) = \lim_n \mathbb{P}( (X_n,Y_n) \in A \times B ) \\ &= \lim_n \mathbb{P}( X_n \in A ) \mathbb{P}( Y_n \in B ) = \mathbb{P}( X \in A ) \mathbb{P}( Y \in B ). \end{split} \end{equation} Thus, the probability measure $\mu$ and $\mu_1 \otimes \mu_2$ coincide on $\mathcal{C}$ and, hence, on the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $\mathcal{C}$ since $\mathcal{C}$ is closed under finite intersections.
Finally, it was shown in 2 that the $\sigma$-algebra generated by all sets of continuity is the entire Borel $\sigma$-algebra for separable metric spaces.
Is this proof correct? Can it be extended to more general settings or is there another proof that covers more general settings?
Cheers