I am doing a homework question. But I get confused.
$\{B_t: t \geqslant 0\}$ is a standard Brownian motion. Show that there exists $t_{1}<t_{2}<\cdots$ with $t_{n} \rightarrow \infty$ such that with probability one, $$ \limsup _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{B_{t_{n}}}{\sqrt{t_{n} \log \log t_{n}}}=0 $$ But there is a theorem:
(Law of the Iterated Logarithm for Brownian motion) Suppose $\{B_t: t \geqslant 0\}$ is a standard Brownian motion. Then, almost surely, $$ \limsup _{t \rightarrow \infty} \frac{B(t)}{\sqrt{2 t \log \log (t)}}=1 $$ is it a contradiction? Actually I tried $t_n=\exp(\exp(n))$ and apply the borel cantelli lemma, it seems to have: for any $\epsilon>0$
$$ \limsup _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{B_{t_{n}}}{\sqrt{t_{n} \log \log t_{n}}}< \epsilon $$
But $t_n$ always go to infinite, so the theorem should give us $\sqrt{2}$, really confused...