I am working on an exercise about measure theory and I need to use the binary expansion of real number in the dyadic interval.
Firstly, we know that the binary expansion of real number in $[0,1]$ is a map $f:\Omega\longrightarrow [0,1]$ maps $\omega=(x_{1},\cdots, x_{n},\cdots)$ to $$f(\omega):=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{x_{j}}{2^{j}}.$$
My question is then how to express $f^{-1}(E)$ if $E=(\frac{k}{2^{j}}, \frac{k+1}{2^{j}})$ is the dyadic interval.
This question is basically equivalent to finding a way to represent $x\in E$ in binary expansion.
I am not really familiar with this material, so I read several online notes. For now, the only thing I know is that this map is well-defined since the series converges (comparison test), it is surjective since any real number in $[0,1]$ has a binary expansion, but it is not injective because not all real number has a unique binary expansion (the dyadic rationals have two expansion).
I also tried to follow the post here how to find the binary expansion of any number in the unit interval [0,1], but I got confused.
The post identifying the measure $\lambda f^{-1}$ on the interval $[0,1]$ seems suggested that the binary expansion of points in the dyadic interval has only finitely many of entries, but I have no idea why it is true.
From this, Whether a real number is a dyadic rational iff its binary expansion terminates?, I know that dyadic rational has terminating representation, but why does all the points in the dyadic intervals has finite length representation?
For now, I can only say that since dyadic rational has terminating binary expansion, and the length is the same as $j$. That is, $$\dfrac{k}{2^{j}}=0.x_{1}x_{2}\cdots x_{j}\ \ \text{and}\ \ \dfrac{k+1}{2^{j}}=0.y_{1}y_{2}\cdots y_{j}.$$ So, every $x\in E$ satisfies $$0.x_{1}x_{2}\cdots x_{j}<x<0.y_{1}y_{2}\cdots y_{j},$$ and thus $$f^{-1}(E)=f^{-1}(0.x_{1}x_{2}\cdots x_{j}, 0.y_{1}y_{2}\cdots y_{j}),$$ but then what does this mean in the space $\Omega$?.. It seems that we have many choices for the preimage.