Can someone help me on the right track for my proof for the statement below. I started and got stuck but I need help. Please guide me to answer what this statement requires and how to word it out correctly.
For all $x,y\in\mathbb R$ define that $x\equiv y$ if $x^{2}=y^{2}.$ Then $\equiv$ is an equivalence relation on $\mathbb R$, there are infinitely many equivalence classes, one of them consists of one element and the rest consist of two elements.
True. Let $p=x,y,z\in\mathbb{R}$. For $x\equiv y$ if $x^{2}\equiv y^{2}$ on $\mathbb{R}.$ To be an equivalence relation on $\mathbb{R}$ we need to show that: $$\text{i).}\ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}; x\equiv x\ \text{such that}\ x^{2}=x^{2}$$ $$\text{ii).}\ \forall x,y\in\mathbb{R}\ \text{if}\ x\equiv y\ \text{then}\ y\equiv x\ \text{such that}\ x^{2}=y^{2}\ \text{but}\ y^{2}=x^{2}$$ $$\text{iii).}\ \forall x,y,z\in\mathbb{R}\ \text{if}\ x\equiv y\ \text{and}\ y\equiv z, \text{then}\ x\equiv z\ \text{such that}\ x^{2}=y^{2}\ \text{and}\ y^{2}=z^{2}\Rightarrow x^{2}=z^{2}$$
Therefore the equivalence class of $[0,0]=\{p=(x,y,z\in\mathbb{R}|p\equiv(0,0)\}=\{(0,0)\}$ then $p\equiv(0,0)\Leftrightarrow x^{2}=y^{2}$ which is equal to $0^{2}=0^{2}=0$ if and only if $x=y=0.$
Comment: I am stuck here I dont know where to continue on. Please help..thank you