If $X\subset \mathbb{A}^N$ and $Y\subset\mathbb{A}^M$ are affine varieties with $X=Z(f_1,\dots,f_n)$ and $Y=Z(g_1,\dots,g_m)$ then $X\times Y\subset\mathbb{A}^{N+M}$ is an affine variety with $X\times Y=Z(f_1,\dots,f_n,g_1,\dots,g_m)$. But if we take $f_1,\dots,f_n$ and $g_1,\dots,g_m$ to generate the ideal of $X$ and $Y$ respectively then must $f_1,\dots,f_n,g_1,\dots,g_n$ generate the ideal of $X\times Y$?
This is equivalent to asking if given $f_1,\dots,f_n\in\mathbb{k}[x_1,\dots,x_n]$ and $g_1,\dots,g_n\in\mathbb{k}[y_1,\dots,y_m]$ generating radical ideals whether $f_1,\dots,f_n,g_1,\dots,g_n\in\mathbb{k}[x_1,\dots,x_n,y_1,\dots,y_m]$ generate a radical ideal.
This is true, for example, if the ideals are monomial ideals. But in general I don't really have good intuition for this and the main reason I am asking is because it would make working with product varieties a lot easier.
We have an isomorphism $(A\times B)\otimes C\cong (A\otimes C)\times (B\otimes C)$ as modules, then check the isomorphism is indeed a ring map.
– user119882 Mar 29 '14 at 18:25