Currently I'm looking at the proof of Sard's theorem given in John Milnor's "Topology from the differentiable viewpoint". I'm a bit confused about a remark on the case where the dimension of the target space is strictly larger than the dimension of the initial space.
Let $f: U \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ be a smooth map, where $U \subset \mathbb{R}^m$ is open and $m<n$. In this case it is clear that set of critical points of $f$ is just $U$ and here, Sard's theorem simply states that $f(U)$ has measure zero. Milnor says that this is an obvious fact, however, as I'm a bit rusty in measure theory, I wasn't able to proof this. I also wonder whether the same is true if $f$ is just continuous.
Let me restate the question:
Let $f: U \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ be smooth/continuous, where $U \subset \mathbb{R}^m$ is open and $m<n$. Does $f(U)$ have Lebesgue measure zero?
I found a few partial answers here and here. But while the first post is not general enough the second one is too general and I think in the case of a smooth map the proof should be quite elementary.
Thank you for any help