I am studying for my final and got stuck on the following problem from the previous year. I put my attempt below.
Suppose that $I\subset \mathbb{R}$ is an open interval, $f:I\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is differentiable on $I$ and its derivative is continuous on $I$. If $a,b\in I$ and $E\subseteq [a,b]$ is of Lebesgue measure zero, show that $f(E)$ is a set of Lebesgue measure zero.
I think that since $E$ is a set of measure zero for every $\varepsilon>0$, there is a countable covering of $E$ with disjoint open intervals $E\subset \cup_{i\geq 1} U_i$ where $|U_i|=d_i$, so that $\sum_{i=1}m^\ast(U_i)=\sum_{i=1} d_i<\varepsilon$, then: $$ m^\ast(f(E))\leq \sum_{i=1} m^\ast(f(U_i))\leq \sum_{i=1}|(f(u_{i1}),f(u_{i2}))|=\sum_{i=1}|f(u_{i1})-f(u_{i2})|\leq \sup_{a\leq t\leq b}|f'(t)| \varepsilon, $$ so $m^\ast(f(E))$ has measure zero as $f'$ is bounded on $[a,b]$.
Howerver, I am not sure why $\sum_{i=1} m^\ast(f(U_i))\leq \sum_{i=1}|(f(u_{i1}),f(u_{i2}))|$.
I am also trying to see why this would imply that for a set $E\subseteq I$ with measure zero, $f(E)$ is a set of measure zero.