From this problem, I see that
Theorem 1:(Eberlein-Smul'yan Theorem) A Banach space $E$ is reflexive if and only if every (norm) bounded sequence in $E$ has a subsequence which converges weakly to an element of $E$.
But in a Chinese book, I seemly find that
Theorem 2: $E$ is normed space. If $E$ is reflexive, then, every bounded sequence in $E$ has a subsequence which converges weakly.
The proof of Theorem 2 really does not use completeness. But I always felt a little uneasy, so I wanted to ask, is theorem 2 right?