Let $\phi$ be the density of the standard normal $N(0,1)$ distribution. Let $\{t\}=t-\lfloor t\rfloor$, this is the fractional part function. Thought, $m$ is the Lebesgue measure on the real line.
Define
$$f_n=c_n(1-\{nt\})\phi(t)$$
where $c_n$ is a normalizing factor such that $\int f_n=1$.
Since $t\mapsto 1-\{t\}$ is measurable bounded and 1-periodic
$$c^{-1}_n=\int (1-\{nt\})\phi(t)\,dt\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}\int^1_0(1-t)\,dt=\frac12$$
by Fejer's lemma. Thus, $c_n\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}2$.
For any $g\in L_\infty$, $g\phi\in L_1$ and so
$$\int f_n g\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}\int \phi g$$
Thus, not only does $\mu_n=f_n\,dm$ converges to $\mu=\phi\,dm$ weakly in $\sigma(\mathcal{M}(\mathbb{R}),\mathcal{C}_b(\mathbb{R}))$ but also $f_n$ converges weakly to $\phi$ in $\sigma(L_1(m),L_\infty(m))$.
Now,
$$KL(f_n|\phi)=c_n\int\log(1-\{nt\})\,(1-\{nt\})\phi(t)\,dt+\log(c_n)\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}-\frac12+\log(2)$$
Since $h(x)=\log(1-\{t\})(1-\{t\})$ is measurable bounded and 1-periodic (another application of Fejer's lemma). Then $\int\log\Big(\frac{f_n}{c\phi}\Big)f_n\,dm\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}0$ for $c=e^{\log(\log2-1/2)}$. However, there is no pointwise convergent subsequence of $f_n$ and thus, $f_n$ does not converge to $\phi$ in $L_1(m)$ either.
Final comments:
- This example also shows that even if a sequence of densities $f_n$ converges weakly to another probability density $f$, $KL(f_n|f)$ may not converge to $K(f|f)=0$.
- If $\mu_n$ and $\mu$ are probability measures on a space $(\Omega,\mathscr{F})$, $\mu_n\ll \mu$ for all $n$, then it is known that (Pinsker's inequality) that
$$\|\mu_n-\mu\|_{TV}\leq \sqrt{\frac12KL(\mu_n|\mu)}$$
where $\|\;\|_{TV}$ stands for the total variation of $\mu_n-\mu$. Therefore, if $K(\mu_n|\mu)\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}0$, the sequence $\mu_n$ converges to $\mu$ in total variation. This is much stronger than weak convergence of measures. In particular, if $\mu_n$ and $\mu$ are Borel probability measures on the real line, $\mu_n\ll\mu\ll m$, and $f_n=\frac{d\mu_n}{dm}$, $f=\frac{d\mu}{dm}$, then
$$\|\mu_n-\mu\|_{TV}=\|f_n-f\|_{L_1(m)}\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty}0$$
This is perhaps the result that the OP is more interested in.