First off, I have appended an addendum, it might be better to check it first.
I denote a Kripke model for intuitionistic logic by the triple $\mathcal{M}=\langle W, \leq, V\rangle$ where $W$ is the set of possible worlds, $\leq$ is the accessibility relation on $W$ and $V$ is the variable valuation function. For the propositions employed without argument, I refer the reader to the chapter on intuitionistic logic in van Dalen's Logic and Structure (freely available at the Internet Archive).
- For a proposition $A$, we want to show that
$$\underbrace{\vdash_{IPL}(\neg\neg A\rightarrow A)\rightarrow A\vee\neg A}_{antecedent\,statement}\implies\underbrace{\vdash_{IPL}\neg A\mbox{ or }\vdash_{IPL}\neg\neg A}_{consequent\,statement}$$
Hence, for any model $\mathcal{M}$ and world $w$
$$\mathcal{M},w\Vdash(\neg\neg A\to A)\rightarrow A\vee\neg A\implies\mathcal{M},w\Vdash\neg A\mbox{ or }\mathcal{M},w\Vdash\neg\neg A$$
Then, for the antecedent statement, $\forall w'\,(w\leq w')$,
$$\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash\neg\neg A\rightarrow A\implies\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A\vee\neg A$$
Therefore, whenever either $\mathcal{M},w'\not\Vdash\neg\neg A\mbox{ or }\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A$, we must get $\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A\vee\neg A$
(i) In case that $\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A$, we get $\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A\vee\neg A$ immediately, for $A\rightarrow A\vee B$ is an axiom of IPL.
Using the theorem of IPL $A\rightarrow\neg\neg A$, we have also obtained one of the disjuncts in the consequent statement that we have set out to obtain.
(ii) In case that $\mathcal{M},w'\not\Vdash\neg\neg A$, we note that $\forall w\, (w\leq w')$ and $\neg A\leftrightarrow \neg\neg\neg A$ is a theorem of IPL. Therefore,
$$\mathcal{M},w'\not\Vdash\neg\neg A\iff\mathcal{M},w\Vdash\neg A$$
Thus, we get $\mathcal{M},w'\Vdash A\vee\neg A$ by the same axiom mentioned.
Notice that this is also the other disjunct that we have set out to obtain, and we are done.
- We suppose that $A$ is a proposition such that $\nvdash_{IPL}\neg A$ and $\nvdash_{IPL}\neg\neg A$. We want to show that there is a proposition $B$ such that
$$\nvdash_{IPL}((A\rightarrow B)\rightarrow B)\wedge((B\rightarrow A)\rightarrow A)\rightarrow A\vee B$$
Hence, in Kripke semantics formulation, there is a model $\mathcal{M}$ such that
$$\mathcal{M}, w\Vdash((A\rightarrow B)\rightarrow B)\wedge((B\rightarrow A)\rightarrow A),\mbox{ but }\mathcal{M},w\not\Vdash A\vee B$$
Since $\nvdash_{IPL}\neg\neg A$ and $\vdash_{IPL}A\rightarrow\neg\neg A$, we infer that $A$ is not a theorem of IPL. So, we may take $\neg A$ as the sought $B$ in order to be able to write $\not\Vdash A\vee\neg A$. Hence, by the same model that we have obtain $\mathcal{M}, w\not\Vdash A\vee\neg A$, if we can show that
$$\mathcal{M}, w\Vdash((A\rightarrow\neg A)\rightarrow\neg A)\wedge((\neg A\rightarrow A)\rightarrow A)$$
we are done.
For this, we take $W=\{w, w'\}$ such that $w\leq w'$ and let $V(A, w)=0$ and $V(A, w')=1$. Since $A$ is true at $w'$, $\neg A$ is false at $w$ in conformance to $\not\vdash_{IPL}\neg A$. We can check the formula against the truth condition of implication and see that $\mathcal{M}$ is indeed a model for the antecedent statement.
Addendum
It seems to be helpful to dwell on the proof methodology. Suppose we want to semantically (i.e., by models and truth-conditions) show
$$(\phi\rightarrow\psi)\rightarrow\theta$$
We can follow two paths (arranging the worlds/nodes of evaluation appropriately):
(1) Assume $\phi$. Then, for any model $\mathcal{M}$ of $\phi$, write
$$\mathcal{M}\Vdash\phi\\\vdots\\\mathcal{M}\Vdash\psi\\\mathcal{M}\Vdash\phi\rightarrow\psi\\\vdots\\\frac{\mathcal{M}\Vdash\theta}{\mathcal{M}\Vdash(\phi\rightarrow\psi)\rightarrow\theta}$$
(2) Assume $\phi\rightarrow\psi$. Then, for any model $\mathcal{M}$ of $\phi\rightarrow\psi$, write
$$\mathcal{M}\not\Vdash\phi\qquad\mathcal{M}\Vdash\psi\\\vdots\quad\qquad\vdots\\\frac{\mathcal{M}\Vdash\theta\qquad\mathcal{M}\Vdash\theta}{\mathcal{M}\Vdash(\phi\rightarrow\psi)\rightarrow\theta}$$
The path (1) is clear by the definition of logical consequence: Having assumed $\phi$, we derive $\psi$ and then $\theta$.
But why (2)? Because of the truth-conditions:
$$\mathcal{M}, w\Vdash\phi\rightarrow\psi\iff\forall w'(w\leq w')\mbox{ either }\mathcal{M}, w'\not\Vdash\phi\mbox{ or }\mathcal{M}, w'\Vdash\psi$$
Hence, assuming the left-hand side is equivalent to assuming the right-hand side.