Following the discussion Here, in particular this answer by Qiaochu Yuan.
If we have a set $X$ acted by an arbitrary "time monoid" $M$ and $G$ is a group of symmetries of $X$ as in the answer's setup, could we reasonably write this generalization of Noether's Theorem like this: $$X^M/G = X/G$$
I would read this as 'the set of $G$ orbits of $X$ time shifted by $M$ is the same as the set of $G$ orbits of $X$'.
Does that seem right?
I really like how simple it is compared to other statements of Noether's Theorem, but is it missing something important?