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I'm looking for ideas on how to represent $\pi e$ as an infinite series of rational numbers.

It is easy to build meaningless formulas using double summations by distributing a series for $\pi$ over a series for $e$. For example, we have $$\frac{\pi e}4 = \left(\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}\right)\left(\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{n!}\right) = \sum_{i=0}^\infty\sum_{j=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^i}{(2i+1)j!}$$

This is useless, of course. An adequate answer should take form of a single sum with terms having a proper closed form.


There is a relatively simple way to build an infinite product for $\pi e$ using infinite product formulas for $\pi$ and $e$, as $$\frac{\pi e}4 = 2^{\frac12+1}\left(\frac{2\cdot 4}{3\cdot 3}\right)^{\left(\frac12\right)^2+1}\left(\frac{4\cdot 6\cdot 6\cdot 8}{5\cdot 5\cdot 7\cdot 7}\right)^{\left(\frac12\right)^3+1}\dots$$ but there is no easy way to turn this formula into an infinite sum.

This post discusses more infinite product formulas for $e^x$.


Another way to combine formulas for $\pi$ and $e$ is through limits. In particular, we have $$\pi = \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2(-1)^{n+1}(2n)!}{2^{2n}B_{2n}}\right)^{1/2n}\qquad e = \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{n^n}{n!}\right)^{1/n}$$ therefore $$\pi e = \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2(-1)^{n+1}n^{2n}}{B_{2n}}\right)^{1/2n} = \lim_{n\to\infty} n\left(\frac{2(-1)^{n+1}}{B_{2n}}\right)^{1/2n}$$ where $B_n$ stands for the $n$th Bernoulli number. This limit is not something new. It is more often written as the approximation $$B_{2n}\approx (-1)^{n+1} 4\sqrt{\pi n}\left(\frac n{\pi e}\right)^{2n}$$

It must be noted any sequence $(a_n)_n$ with limit $\pi e$ can be used in order to create the telescoping series $$\pi e = a_0+\sum_{n=0}^\infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)$$ This is a perfectly valid way of obtaining an adequate answer as long as its terms can be simplified into a simple closed form. This is not the case for the limit above, beyond its terms not being rational.


In me search I've found the following formula $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{(2n+1)!!} = \sqrt{\frac{\pi e}2}~\mathrm{erf}\left(\frac1{\sqrt2}\right)$$

At first glance this seem useless as the error function have a $\dfrac1{\sqrt\pi}$ normalization factor, so the $\pi$ vanishes from the formula. However, the following expression due to Ramanujan fixes this issue $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac1{(2n+1)!!}+\dfrac1{1+\dfrac1{1+\dfrac2{1+\dfrac3{1+\ddots}}}} = \sqrt{\frac{\pi e}2}$$ I must say this is the most astonishing formula I've ever seen, but there is still no simple way to turn this into an infinite sum, and even if there was, there would be no simple way to square it.

This is related to the continued fraction formula $$\frac{\sqrt\pi}2 e^{z^2}\mathrm{erf}(z) = \dfrac z{1-\dfrac{z^2}{\dfrac32+\dfrac{z^2}{\dfrac52-\dfrac{z^2}{\dfrac72+\ddots}}}}$$

Also, this instigated me to investigate the series $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{\displaystyle\prod_{k=0}^n ak+b} = \frac{e^{x/a}}a\left(\frac xa\right)^{-b/a}\left(\Gamma\left(\frac ba\right)-\Gamma\left(\frac ba,\frac xa\right)\right)$$ but I couldn't get anything useful from it. Notice the double factorial series of odd numbers is the particular case of this for $x=1$, $a = 2$ and $b = 1$.


A comment pointed me out to the beautiful integral $$\int_0^1\sin(\pi x) x^x(1-x)^{1-x}dx = \frac{\pi e}{24}$$

This result and generalizations are thoroughly explored in this post. I'm doubtful about expanding this into an infinite sum, though, as there is a $\pi$ term appearing on it and the function $x^x$ doesn't have a nice series expansion.

Another difficult-to-work-with integrals I've found are the following $$\int_0^\infty\frac1{\sqrt x^{\ln x}}dx = \int_0^\infty\frac{\ln x}{\sqrt x^{\ln x}}dx = \sqrt{2\pi e}$$ $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\sqrt2-1}}{x^{\ln x}}dx = \sqrt{\pi e}$$


Here is another integral mentioned in the comments

$$\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{\cos x}\sin\sin x}x dx = \frac{\pi(e-1)}2$$

This one seem to have a more promising expansion. In fact, let's notice $$\begin{aligned} e^{e^{ix}} = e^{\cos x + i\sin x} = e^{\cos x} (\cos\sin x + i\sin\sin x) \end{aligned}$$

The expansion of $e^{e^x}$ is given by $\displaystyle e\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{B_n}{n!}x^n$ where $B_n$ stands for the $n$th Bell number (this is not the same as Bernoulli number), therefore, we have $$e^{\cos x}\sin\sin x = e\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\frac{B_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1}$$ and then $$\int\frac{e^{\cos x}\sin\sin x}x = e\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{B_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1}$$

Finally, because this function is $0$ at $0$, this means $$\begin{aligned} \lim_{x\to \infty}e\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{B_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1} &= \frac{\pi(e-1)}2&\implies\\ \lim_{x\to \infty}\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{B_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1} &= \frac\pi2-\frac\pi{2e}&\\ \end{aligned}$$ I must say, the $e$ outside the sum is very disappointing. In the end, even if we can work out the limit, we will get an expression for $\pi/e$ instead of $\pi e$. Not that that isn't impressive, though.

On an effort to contour this issue I applied Dobiński's formula $$B_n = \frac1e\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{k^n}{k!}$$

With it we get $$\begin{aligned} e\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{B_{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1} &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty\sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^n\frac{k^{2n+1}}{k!}\cdot\frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}\\ &= \sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac1{k!}\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\cdot\frac{(kx)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)(2n+1)!}\\ &= \sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{\mathrm{Si}(kx)}{k!} \end{aligned}$$

But in this way we just end up accidentally solving the integral. In fact, all there is left to do is to notice $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\mathrm{Si}(x) = \frac\pi2$.


A comment mentions the power series of the function $f(x) = e^{2x}\arcsin x$. Here it is, as given by Wolfram Alpha

$$x + 2x^2 + \frac{13}{6}x^3 + \frac{5}{3}x^4 + \frac{43}{40}x^5 + \frac{23}{36}x^6 + \frac{221}{560}x^7 + \frac{653}{2520}x^8 + O(x^9) = $$ $$x + \frac{4}{2!}x^2 + \frac{13}{3!}x^3 + \frac{40}{4!}x^4 + \frac{129}{5!}x^5 + \frac{460}{6!}x^6 + \frac{1989}{7!}x^7 + \frac{10448}{8!}x^8 + O(x^9) $$ OEIS have nothing to say on the numerators of these coefficients. However, there is a page on the expansion of the exponential generating function of $e^x\arctan x$, namely A279927. It gives us

$$\begin{aligned} e^x\arctan x &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}\sum_{k=0}^{n/2} (-1)^k \binom{n}{2k+1} (2k)!\\ &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\sum_{k=0}^{n/2} \frac{(-1)^k}{(2k+1)(n-(2k+1))!}\right)x^n\\ \end{aligned}$$

For $x = 1$ this should result in $\dfrac{\pi e}4$. Of course, this is still not the answer I'm looking for.

On the same note, A291482 is the expansion of the exponential generating function of $e^x\arcsin x$, giving

$$e^x\arcsin x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}\sum_{k=0}^{(n-1)/2} \binom{n}{2k+1} \binom{2k}{k} \frac{(2k)!}{4^k}$$

Again, for $x = 1$ this should result in $\dfrac{\pi e}2$.


The OEIS page on the decimal expansion of $\pi e$ (A019609) mentions the infinite product formula $$\pi e = \prod_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(k + 1)^{4k + 3}}{(k + 2)^{6k + 5}}\left(\frac{(2k + 3)(k + 3)}{2k + 1}\right)^{2k + 2}$$

and the limit formula $$\pi e = \lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{4k}{u_k^2}$$ where $u_k$ is defined as $u_1 = 0$, $u_2 = 1$ and $u_{k+2} = u_{k+1}+\dfrac{u_k}{2k}$. The sequence $(u_k)_k$ have generating series

$$f(x) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty u_k x^k = \frac{x^2}{(1-x)^{3/2}}e^{-x/2}$$

and closed form

$$u_k=\sum_{n=0}^{k-2}\frac{(-1)^k}{2^n n!}\binom{-3/2}{k-n-2}$$

as established in this post.


If you have any interesting formula for $\pi e$, please share. Even if it is not an infinite sum, maybe there are ways to work around it or take inspiration from it.

Alma Arjuna
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    "Even if it is not an infinite sum, maybe there are ways to work around it or take inspiration from it." If it's a finite sum of rational numbers, then I'd be very interested. :) – Theo Bendit Oct 29 '24 at 17:30
  • I don't know of a continued fraction for $\pi e$, but your mention of Ramanujan's expression looks promising. – hardmath Oct 29 '24 at 17:31
  • @TheoBendit Wouldn't we all? :) – HackR Oct 29 '24 at 17:32
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    https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4981343/335418 may be of interest to you. You can use EM or Abel Plana or some such to convert the integral to summation – Srini Oct 29 '24 at 19:07
  • Maybe I am missing something, but why can't we take the log of the infinite product representation? – Patrick Gambill Oct 29 '24 at 21:12
  • @PatrickGambill Because that will give you a series for $\log(\pi e)$ instead of one for $\pi e$. – jjagmath Oct 29 '24 at 21:17
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    $f(x) = e^{2x}\arcsin(x)$ satisfies ODE $f''(x)-4f'(x)+4f(x) = \frac{x}{1-x^2}(f'(x)-2f(x))$ and $f(1/2)=\pi e/6$. So we can find a recurrence relation for the coefficients in the Maclaurin series of $f$, and hope that series converges at $x=1/2$. That doesn't necessarily give a nice closed form for those coefficients. – aschepler Oct 29 '24 at 23:22
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    A somewhat trivial observation: $8+\sum_{k=2}^{\infty} \frac{4(k+1)}{u_{k+1}^2}-\frac{4k}{u_k^2}=\pi e$, because of the limit you mentioned and telescoping. There might be other ways to express the terms in this series, like a recurrence relation. Also, we can use the same limit with many different sorts of telescoping to get similar results. – Jan Oct 30 '24 at 12:31
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    On p. 340 of the book ``Inside Interesting Integrals'' by Paul Nahin, the author describes how Edward Copson attributes the following integral identity to Cauchy in his 1935 book An Introduction to the Theory of Functions of a Complex Variable: $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{ e^{\cos(x)} \sin( \sin(x) ) }{x} dx = \frac{\pi}{2} (e-1) $. I suspect one could derive a series expression from this identity – Max Lonysa Muller Oct 31 '24 at 21:15
  • Related: Sasaki and Kanada's formula for logarithm, involving pi, the arithmetic-geometric mean, and Jacobi theta functions. See https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4072050/207316 – PM 2Ring Nov 01 '24 at 00:33
  • “Of course, this is still not the answer I’m looking for.”- Why exactly are you saying this about the result involving $e^x \arctan(x)$? Is it because its terms are expressed in terms of finite sums? I thought we had given many valid answers by now? – Jan Nov 02 '24 at 18:39
  • @Jan having the sum terms written in terms of finite sums or any other recurrence relation with no simple closed general form is unsatisfactory, as I mentioned in the first part of this post. Otherwise, simply applying Cauchy's product to any two infinite series for $\pi$ and $e$ would've been enough to solve the problem. – Alma Arjuna Nov 02 '24 at 19:07
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    Haven't been able to series-fy this, but here's another integral similar to the one commented by @MaxLonysaMuller $$ \int_0^{2\pi} x \sin\left(x+\sin(x)\right) e^{\cos(x)} \mathrm{d}x = 2\pi(1-e) $$ – Robert Lee Nov 04 '24 at 23:59
  • This one is a bit forced, but throwing it out there regardless $$ \int_{0}^{\pi} x \lvert \cos(x) \rvert e^{\sin(x)}\mathrm{d} x = \pi (e-1) $$ – Robert Lee Nov 05 '24 at 15:12
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    @RobertLee the only issue I take with the formulas you provide is the appearance of $\pi$ at the limits of the integral. If we were to expand them we'd have a formula for $\pi$ in terms of $\pi$. – Alma Arjuna Nov 05 '24 at 15:15
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    @AlmaArjuna, not sure if this helps but one idea is to tweak the limits with an appropriate substitution. For example, manipulating the previous integral with the half-angle sub gives $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \arctan(t)\frac{\lvert 1-t^2\rvert }{(1+t^2)^2}\exp\left({\frac{2t}{1+t^2}}\right), \mathrm{d}t = \frac{\pi(e-1)}{4} $$ I haven't looked into the details (which is why I'm just commenting rather than answering) but maybe someone can use them as a starting point and/or inspiration. – Robert Lee Nov 05 '24 at 15:36
  • Please keep edits to a minimum. You edited 20+ times recently, @AlmaArjuna – Shaun Nov 10 '24 at 17:45
  • @Shaun I'm sorry, I was adding new expressions and formulas as I found them. What is a reasonable time spacing for edits? – Alma Arjuna Nov 10 '24 at 17:49
  • Edit in bulks and you should be fine. Wait half a day, I guess, between them; don't quote me on that. – Shaun Nov 10 '24 at 17:54

1 Answers1

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This will probably be unsatisfactory (as it was obtained by telescoping), but it feels wrong not to post this, as this formula does follow all rules put forward. The fraction can easily be rewritten without using the double factorial symbol ‘$!!$’ if that were to bother anyone:

$$ \pi e = 8 + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{((2n)!)^{2}\left(4n^{n+1}(n+2)^{n+1}-(2n+1)^{2}(n+1)^{2n}\right)}{(\left(2n-1\right)!!)^{4}(n+1)^{n}n^{n+1}(2n+1)^{2}}. $$ I would greatly appreciate any help in further simplifying this.


Here’s how I obtained the above result and how you could obtain many similar results. First we have the following limit that can be obtained as using well-known formulae $$ \pi = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \frac {2^{4n} (n!)^4 }{n((2n)!)^2}, $$ and of course $$ e=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)^n. $$ This implies $$ \pi e = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac {2^{4n} (n!)^4 }{n((2n)!)^2} \left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)^n, $$ and if we let $f(n)$ be the $n$-th term of the sequence in the above limit, then $$ \pi e = f(1)+\sum_{n=1}^\infty (f(n+1)-f(n)). $$ After writing this monster down, I tried my best to simplify (verifying my work numerically) and obtained the above result.

It would be very interesting to see people attempt take similar approaches with more appropriate limit expressions for $\pi$ and $e$.


Another example of this technique is when we use the limit $$ e=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{n!}{!n}, $$ where $!n$ is the number of derangements, also called the subfactorial. This yields $$ \pi e = \frac{64}9 + \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{2^{4n}(n!)^{5}}{!(n+1)\,\cdot \,!n ((2n)!)^{2}n(2n+1)^{2}} ((-1)^{n}(2n+1)^{2}-!n(n+1)), $$ and I actually quite like this result.


I’m very aware that this answer could be described as ‘artificial’ and ‘non-canonical’. It is also meant as a source of inspiration to find similar formulae with, hopefully, nicer terms.

I’ve tried to find a very nice limit expression for $\pi$ (with rational terms), but was unable to do so.

Jan
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  • I assume everybody here including the OP knows that $\lim_n a_n$ can be written as $a_0 + \sum_k (a_{k+1}-a_k)$ and knows how to simplify $a_{k+1}-a_k$ then, so it's probably not what this question is about. So I think it is more appropriate to leave a comment asking the OP to add this restriction that the answer should not be a telescope sum. – Martin Brandenburg Nov 03 '24 at 00:54
  • @MartinBrandenburg I understand where you’re coming from, but my comment about telescoping was well received, and I feel like I emphasised the goal of this answer well. I’m somewhat hopeful a nice answer can be found using telescoping. I admit that I hadn’t thought about asking the OP to change their question. – Jan Nov 03 '24 at 01:16
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    I'll add the constrain about telescoping sums on the statement of the problem, thank you for bringing this out! However, please keep you answer (+1), it is quite nice to have attempts being posted here as they allow for more developed suggestions and ideas than the comments :) – Alma Arjuna Nov 03 '24 at 20:26