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I'm reading a Physics paper (https://pubs.aip.org/aapt/ajp/article-abstract/35/9/832/1045177/Causality-in-the-Coulomb-Gauge?redirectedFrom=fulltext), in which it is claimed an identity, which I find as far as I can understand not totally rigorous. The identity is the following: $$T_{ij}(\vec{r},\vec{r'})=\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x_i \partial x_j^{'}}\left(\frac{1}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|}\right)=\frac{\delta_{ij}}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|^3}-\frac{3(x_i-x_i^{'})(x_j-x_j^{'})}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|^5}+\frac{4\pi}{3}\delta_{ij}\delta({\vec{r}-\vec{r'}}).$$ Here $\vec{r}=(x,y,z)$ and $\vec{r^{'}}=(x^{'},y^{'},z^{'})$ and i,j=1,2,3. I'm wrong If I claim that if $\vec{r} \neq\vec{r'}$ and at the same time $i\neq j$, then the identity is ill-defined? In fact the second term in the sum loses meaning since the relative limit for $\vec{r} \rightarrow \vec{r'}$ doesn't exist.enter image description here

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Let's write $r = (x,y,z), r' = (u,v,w)$. Consider the case $i=1,j=2$, Then the claim is $$ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x \partial v}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2+(z-w)^2}}\right) \\= 0 + \frac{-3(x-u)(y-v)}{\big((x-u)^2+(y-v)^2+(z-w)^2\big)^{5/2}} + 0 . $$ I think this is true.

GEdgar
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