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In a recent post, I proposed a conjecture suggesting that every non-zero integer can be expressed as the difference between a semiprime and a prime.

Conjecture: Every Non-Zero Integer as the Difference of a Semiprime and a Prime

To explore this idea further, I examined a related but smaller problem. This exploration led to the following new conjecture, now including zero and focusing on non-negative integers:

(Note: The range of the conjecture was incorrect, so the title and content have been revised.)

Conjecture: For any prime number $p$, every non-negative integer $k$ (including zero) can be expressed in the form: $$ k = p \cdot m - q $$

where $m$ is a positive integer and $q$ is a prime number (which may be the same as or different from $p$).

Computational Evidence

To investigate this conjecture, I conducted a large-scale computational experiment using GPU acceleration. The steps were as follows:

1.Prime Generation: Generated all primes up to a very large limit ($p_{\text{max}}$) and used this set for the multiples $p$. Created a prime bitmask for rapid prime checks up to $q_{\text{limit}}=101,010,000$.

2.Expressibility Check: For each integer $k$ in the range $[0,100,000,000]$ (including zero), checked whether there exists a prime $p$ (from 2 up to $p_{\text{max}}$​) and an integer $m≥1$ such that $k=p⋅m−q$ for some prime $q$. Utilized GPU parallel processing to handle the extensive computations.

Results: Prime Generation:

=== Result ===
All integers in the range [0, 100,000,000], including zero, can be expressed as  p * m - q , where p is any prime between 2 and 383,393, m is a positive integer, and q is any prime.

This computational evidence suggests that the conjecture holds for integers from 0 to $100,000,000$ and for any prime $p$ from $2$ to $383,393$. Although this does not constitute a formal proof, it provides a strong numerical basis for considering the conjecture's validity in general.

Questions and Discussion Points

Theoretical Implications:
    What mathematical properties of primes might underlie the ability to express every non-negative integer, including zero, in this form?
    Could this conjecture be connected to or derived from existing results in number theory, such as prime gaps or properties of prime distributions?

Relationship to Semiprimes: While this conjecture does not directly involve semiprimes, understanding why any prime p allows for such an expression could provide insights into the original conjecture involving semiprimes.

Formal Proof or Counterexamples: What approaches might one take to prove or disprove this conjecture for all primes p? Are there known counterexamples or classes of numbers that are not expressible in this form?

Further Computational Work: Should further computational experiments extend beyond the current range or explore additional properties of p and q to gather more evidence?

Conclusion

This numerical investigation, including the ability to express zero and all positive integers in the specified form, hints at a potentially deep relationship between integers, prime multiples, and prime differences. While the computational evidence is strong, a formal proof or theoretical framework is necessary to fully understand this phenomenon. I am curious to hear thoughts from the community on possible approaches to explore or prove this conjecture.

  • Your conjecture: For any prime number $p$, every integer $k$ (including zero) can be expressed in the form: $$ k = p \cdot m - q $$ Let us take $k=-2$ and $p=2$. So $-2=2m-q$. So $q$ needs to be even, so $q=2$. And $m$ is positive. This doesn't work. – Dietrich Burde Sep 30 '24 at 13:19
  • You should restate your new Conjeture. As written, it is not clear, and you have already a counterexample in the previous comment – FormerMath Sep 30 '24 at 13:32
  • I'm sorry.I didn't do enough verification. I will review the question, including the selection of the range. – Akira Sukigi Sep 30 '24 at 13:48
  • For $k=0$, the only solution in primes is $q=p$ and $m=1$. When you say "another" prime, do you mean a different prime, or is another instance of the same prime meant to be included? – Keith Backman Sep 30 '24 at 14:34
  • After reviewing the program, I noticed that it is not clearing the list when checking for the next prime number, so perhaps my conjectures for 0 and positive integers need to be revised. – Akira Sukigi Sep 30 '24 at 15:01
  • @KeithBackman Thank you for pointing that out. I have revised the title and content to make it clearer. – Akira Sukigi Sep 30 '24 at 17:36

1 Answers1

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(Generalizing Dietrich's counterexample) Clearly there are issues if $\gcd(k, p) \neq 1$, since $ \gcd(k, p) \mid pm - k = q $.

In all other cases, apply Dirichlet's prime number theorem: For a given $p, k$ with $ \gcd(p, k) = 1$, there exists infinitely many primes of the form $ -k + pm$, where $m$ is a positive integer. Pick any of these primes to be $q$.

Calvin Lin
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