On Page $48$ of Silverman's Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves, he proves the theorem that the invariant differential associated to a Weierstrass equation for an elliptic curve is holomorphic and nonvanishing. I will write my understanding of the proof and point out a few doubts $\color{red}{\textrm{in red}}$ along the way. Please note that I am assuming results from Chapters $1$ and $2$.
Let $E : F(x,y) = y^2 + a_1xy + a_3y - x^3 - a_2x^2 - a_4 x -a_6 = 0$. Then the invariant differential is $\omega = \frac{dx}{F_y(x,y)} = - \frac{dy}{F_x(x,y)}$.
I need to show that $ord_P(\omega)$ = 0 when $P = (x_0,y_0) \in E$ or $P = O$, the point at infinity.
$\color{blue}{\textbf{Case 1 : } P = (x_0,y_0) \in E}$
We write $\omega = \frac{d(x-x_0)}{F_y(x,y)} = - \frac{d(y-y_0)}{F_x(x,y)}$. Let $t$ be a uniformizer at $P$. Then $ord_P(\omega) = ord_P(\frac{\omega}{dt}) = ord_P(\frac{d(x-x_0)}{dt})-ord_P(F_y(x,y))$. By Ch. $2$ Prop. $4.3 (b)$ , $ord_P(\frac{d(x-x_0)}{dt}) \geq 0$. So, if $ord_P(\omega) < 0$, then $ord_P(F_y(x,y))>0 \implies F_y(P)=0$. By similar argument, if $ord_P(\omega) < 0$, then $F_x(P)=0$. Thus, due to smoothness of $E$ at $P$, we must have $ord_P(\omega) \geq 0$.
Now consider the map $\phi : E \to \mathbb{P}^1$ given by $\phi([x,y,1]) = [x,1]$. Then, $\deg(\phi)=2$ because for a generic choice of $x$, there are two values of $y$ for which $F(x,y)=0$. $\color{red}{\textrm{How is this equivalent to the definition :} \deg(\phi)=[K(E) : \phi^*K(\mathbb{P}^1)]\textrm{ where } \phi^*(f) = f \circ \phi ?} $
Now, by Ch. $2$ Prop. $2.6$, for all $Q \in \mathbb{P}^1$, we have $\sum_{P\in \phi^{-1}(Q)}e_\phi(P) = \deg(\phi)$. Specifically for $Q = [x_0,1]$, say $P_1 = [x_0,y_1,1] \in E$ and $P_2 = [x_0,y_2,1] \in E$, not necessarily distinct. Since $e_\phi(P_i)= ord_{P_i}(\phi^*t_{\phi(P_i)}) = ord_{P_i}(x-x_0)$, we note that for any point $P \in E$, $ord_P(x-x_0)$ is either $1$ or $2$ and it is $2$ if and only if $F(x_0,y)$ has a double root i.e. $F_y(P) = 0$.
In any case, by Ch. $2$ Prop. $4.3(d)$, $ord_P(\omega) = ord_P(x-x_0)-ord_P(F_y)-1 = 0$.
$\color{blue}{\textbf{Case 2 : } P = O, \textbf{the point at infinity}}$
Silverman begins by stating that $ord_O(x)=-2$ and $ord_O(y)=-3$. $\color{red}{\textrm{How does this follow from the definition : }}$
$\color{red}{ord_P(f/g)=\sup\{d : f \in M_P^d\} - \sup\{d : g \in M_P^d\} \textrm{ where } M_P \textrm{ is the maximal ideal of } K[E]_P ?}$
Let $t$ be a uniformizer at $O$. Then there exist functions $f$ and $g$ not having a pole or a zero at $O$ such that $x=t^{-2}f, y = t^{-3}g$. Write $f'= \frac{df}{dt}$. This is regular at $P$ and hence so is $\omega$ by simple calculations. Thus $ord_O(\omega) = 0$.
Any help would be highly appreciated. Hints are also welcome.