Let $f(x, y) = y-\lambda x - \nu$ and $E$ be the curve $y^2=x^3 + Ax + B$. I am trying to understand how to show directly that $f$ has a pole of order 3 at $\mathcal{O}$ (i.e., without relying on the fact that the degree of the divisor of $f$ is 0). The "proof" from Example 3.0.3 of "Pairings for Beginners" says to homogenize the equations, and then use the facts that $$\left( \frac{\lambda X+\nu Z}{Z}\right)^2 = (X/Z)^3 + A (X/Z) + B$$ and that the right-hand side has a pole of order 3 when $Z=0$.
I fail to see where the displayed equation above comes from. We want to show that the (homogenized) function $F(X,Y,Z) = Y/Z - \lambda (X/Z) - \nu$ evaluates to $\infty$ at the point $[0:1:0]$, yet it seems that the above equation is instead derived by taking $F(X,Y,Z)=0$ and then plugging into the equation for $E$.
Note: I have read a few other answers on stackexchange (as well as textbook examples) showing how to compute the order of the pole at $\mathcal{O}$ for the special cases $f(x,y)=x$ and $f(x,y)=y$; I have not found a source that describes (algorithmically) how to do it in the general case.