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I'm trying to solve the following problem from Aluffi's Algebra: Chapter 0:

Show that there is a surjective homomorphism $\mathbb Z * \mathbb Z \to C_2 * C_3$.

This problem has been discussed on the site before, but not (I think) from the particular angle that I will put forward here.

At this point in the text we do not have any explicit constructions of $\mathbb Z * \mathbb Z$ and $C_2 * C_3$; we know only that they are coproducts in $\mathsf{Grp}$. Hence I have been trying to solve the problem by using universal properties.

As seen below, I have been able to prove this: there exists an epimorphism $\mathbb Z * \mathbb Z \to C_2 * C_3$. I have gleaned from the internet that epimorphisms in $\mathsf{Grp}$ are also surjective, but the proof of that fact is far beyond my current knowledge (and beyond what has been covered in the text).

Is there some other (hopefully more elementary) way to rescue my (attempted) proof?

My attempt

Consider the following diagram:

Commutative diagram 1.

Here $i_1, i_2, j_1, j_2$ are the canonical homomorphisms associated with the two coproducts, and $\varphi_1, \varphi_2$ are surjective homomorphisms (there are obvious ones to choose from). By the universal property of the coproduct there is a unique homomorphism $\sigma$ making the diagram commute.

Next, let us show that $\sigma$ is an epimorphism. Hence let $G$ be an arbitrary group and $\beta, \beta': C_2 * C_3 \to G$ be arbitrary homomorphisms satisfying $\beta \circ \sigma = \beta' \circ \sigma$. Then

$$\beta \circ j_1 \circ \varphi_1 = \beta \circ \sigma \circ i_1 = \beta' \circ \sigma \circ i_1 = \beta' \circ j_1 \circ \varphi_1,$$

which implies that $\beta \circ j_1 = \beta' \circ j_1$, since $\varphi_1$ is (clearly) an epimorphism. Similarly $\beta \circ j_2 = \beta' \circ j_2$. Again by universal property, there is a unique homomorphism $\tau$ making the following diagram commute:

Commutative diagram 2.

But setting $\tau = \beta$ or $\tau = \beta'$ both make the diagram commute; hence $\beta = \beta'$. This shows that $\sigma$ is an epimorphism.

Not yet proven: $\sigma$ is surjective.

Remark

I notice now that there is a very similar solution suggested here. However, it has the same problem as mine; it only shows that there is an epimorphism.

ummg
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  • The two natural generators of $C_2*C_3$ belong to the range of $\sigma$. – Anne Bauval Jul 08 '24 at 20:24
  • @AnneBauval Natural generators have not yet been introduced in the text. I know only that $C_2 * C_3$ is a coproduct. This is why I am attacking the problem via universal properties. – ummg Jul 08 '24 at 20:27
  • @AnneBauval I have no clue what its elements are. – ummg Jul 08 '24 at 20:29
  • See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_product#Construction – Anne Bauval Jul 08 '24 at 20:30
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    @AnneBauval Sure, I could look it up. I could simply read ahead in the book, even. But that is not in the spirit of the problem. It is clearly inteded to be solved with only the tools presented thus far in the text. – ummg Jul 08 '24 at 20:31
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    Can't you show that (the images of) $C_2$ and $C_3$ (in $C_2 * C_3$) generate a subgroup $G$ of $C_2 * C_3$ that enjoys the universal property of a coproduct and hence that $G$ and $C_2 * C_3$ coincide? – Rob Arthan Jul 08 '24 at 20:39
  • @RobArthan That is an interesting idea! I will try it out. – ummg Jul 08 '24 at 20:44
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    Viewing the auhor's comments, I would not be as categorical (pun intended) as you about the fact that his exercise "is clearly intended" not to be solved simply with generators as in my first comment. But I may very well misread. Let me also mention (though I guess they won't interest you) proofs that every epimorphism of groups is surjective. – Anne Bauval Jul 09 '24 at 13:17
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    @AnneBauval Maybe you are right, and I am making it unnecessarily hard for myself. Its hard to judge, because while the author provides a hint about how to view $\mathbb Z * \mathbb Z$ it is not very precisely stated, and there is no hint as to how to view $C_2 * C_3$ until in a later exercise. Maybe the author was just I tiny bit careless here, and I am being pedantic. Still; it is interesting to ponder how to solve it less directly! Also, thank you for the link. – ummg Jul 09 '24 at 14:50

1 Answers1

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The key is that the coproduct is generated by the canonical images of the groups it is a coproduct of.

Lemma. Let $G_1$ and $G_2$ be groups, and let $\iota_j\colon G_j\to G_1*G_2$ be the canonical embeddings into the coproduct. Then $G_1*G_2=\langle \iota_1(G_1),\iota_2(G_2)\rangle$.

Proof. Let $K=\langle\iota_1(G_1),\iota_2(G_2)\rangle$, which is a subgroup of $G_1*G_2$. Let $j_1\colon G_1\to K$ and $j_2\colon G_2\to K$ be the co-restrictions of $\iota_1$ and $\iota_2$ to $K$ (that is, they are the same underlying maps, but we put $K$ to be the codomain rather than $G_1*G_2$).

By the universal property of the coproduct, there exists a unique group homomorphism $g\colon G_1*G_2\to K$ such that $g\circ\iota_1 = j_1$ and $g\circ\iota_2=j_2$. Note that $g$ is surjective, since the image of $g$ contains the images of $j_1$ and $j_2$, which together generate $K$.

On the other hand, if we let $h\colon K\hookrightarrow G_1*G_2$ be the canonical embedding, we have $\iota_1 = h\circ j_1$ and $\iota_2 = h\circ j_2$.

Now we have the maps $h\colon K\to G_1*G_2$ and $g\colon G_1*G_2\to K$. We know that $h$ is one-to-one and $g$ is surjective. We want to show that $h$ is also surjective. That suffices, since $h$ is the canonical inclusion of the subgroup $K$ into $G_1*G_2$.

To that end, we show that $h\circ g\colon G_1*G_2\to G_1*G_2$ is the identity map. Indeed, we have maps $(h\circ g)\circ\iota_1\colon G_1\to G_1*G_2$ and $(h\circ g)\circ\iota_2\colon G_2\to G_1*G_2$. By construction, $$\begin{align*} (h\circ g)\circ \iota_1 &= h\circ(g\circ \iota_1)=h\circ j_1 = \iota_1,\\ (h\circ g)\circ \iota_2 &= h\circ(g\circ \iota_2)=h\circ j_2 = \iota_2. \end{align*}$$ Now we use the uniqueness of the universal property: we know that there exists a unique $\Psi\colon G_1*G_2\to G_1*G_2$ such that $\Psi\circ\iota_i = (h\circ g)\circ \iota_i$. One such map is of course $h\circ g$. But we just saw that another such map is $\mathrm{id}_{G_1*G_2}$. Therefore, we must have $h\circ g = \mathrm{id}_{G_1*G_2}$. This proves that $h$ has a right inverse and $g$ a left inverse, and therefore that $h$ is surjective and $g$ is injective. Thus, the canonical embedding $h\colon\langle \iota_1(G_1),\iota_2(G_2)\rangle \hookrightarrow G_1*G_2$ is surjective. Therefore, $$G_1*G_2 = \langle \iota_1(G_1),\iota_2(G_2)\rangle,$$ as claimed. $\Box$


Remark. This holds for an arbitrary coproduct (any number of co-factors, not just two). Also, the argument is only using the universal properties and the notion of "substructure generated", so the argument holds in any category of $\Omega$-algebras that has a coproducts.


Now, you have your $\sigma\colon\mathbb{Z}*\mathbb{Z}\to C_2*C_3$. This $\sigma$ satisfies that $$\begin{align*} \sigma\circ\iota_1 &= j_1\circ\phi_1\\ \sigma\circ\iota_2 &= j_2\circ\phi_2. \end{align*}$$ We also know that both $\phi_1$ and $\phi_2$ are surjective. Thus, the image of $\sigma$ contains the image of $j_1$, and contains the image of $j_2$. Thus, $$C_2*C_3 = \langle j_1(C_2),j_2(C_3)\rangle \subseteq \sigma(\mathbb{Z}*\mathbb{Z})\subseteq C_2*C_3,$$ which proves that $\sigma$ is surjective, as desired.

Arturo Magidin
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  • This is something I suspected (from consideration of more familiar coproducts), but could not prove. I am a bit too tired to read your answer in detail now, but I will return to it later. – ummg Jul 08 '24 at 21:34
  • There's also nothing particularly specific to groups here; this is also true of coproducts in "algebraic" categories, e.g. monoids, rings, modules. – Qiaochu Yuan Jul 08 '24 at 23:46
  • @QiaochuYuan Indeed. The only thing that is needed is the notion of "substructure generated". – Arturo Magidin Jul 09 '24 at 00:27