Does anyone know a reference on the result in the picture? I believe there should be one, at least for (p=q=2). Here,
$$\|f\|_{p,q}:= \left(\int_X\left(\int_Y|f(x,y)|^q d \mu_Y(y)\right)^{p/q} d \mu_X(x)\right)^{1/p}.$$

I wrote down my proof on here, but I want a reference in the literature.