So is this correct to say that 2 + 2 = 4 ≡ 3 + 2 = 5, since both are true statements? It's a simple question but usually when logical equivalence is mentioned it's mostly seen between two propositions with variables, hence I just want to make sure.
To further elaborate this with another example, would $\forall x(P(x) <-> Q(x))$ mean $P(x_{1}) ≡ Q(x_{1}), \dots , (x_{n}) ≡ Q(x_{n})$, where domain is set ${x_{1}, \dots, x_{n} } $
Another example would be from Rosen's Discrete textbook, where they make compound proposition logically equivalent/≡ to T (true). Hence it seems reasonable to assume that one side (and hence both sides) of a statement that claims logical equivalence to be just statements that are just plain-out true (T), unless I'm misinterpreting something here!:
Kindly please let me know and clarify :)
