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Let $(x,y,z)$ be the sides of a triangle whose vertices are uniformly random on the circumference of a circle. Experimental data using a simulation with $10^9$ trails for each tested value of $a \ge 1$ suggests that:

When $a \ge 1$ then the probability that $x^a + y^a \ge z^a$ is $P\left(x^a + y^a \ge z^a\right) = \frac{2}{3} + \frac{1}{3a^2}$, or equivalently if $x \le y \le z$. Then $P\left(x^a + y^a \ge z^a\right) = \frac{1}{a^2}$.

Can this Conjecture be proved or disproved? Related question.

Julia source code

using Random
step = 10^9
while true
    a = 1
    while true
        f = 0
        for _ in 1:step
            angles = rand(3) .* 6.283185307179586
            vertices_x = cos.(angles)
            vertices_y = sin.(angles)
            push!(vertices_x, vertices_x[1])
            push!(vertices_y, vertices_y[1])
        x_diff = diff(vertices_x)
        y_diff = diff(vertices_y)
        side_lengths = sqrt.(x_diff.^2 .+ y_diff.^2)
        x, y, z = side_lengths

        if x^a +y^a >= z^a
            f += 1
        end
    end
    prob = f/step
    println((a, prob, prob / (2/3*(1 + 1/2/a^2))))

    a = round(a + 0.1, digits=10)
end

end

  • COMMENT.-Let $(x,y,z)=(x,x+h,x+h+k)$ where $h,k\gt0$ the sides of the triangle. $$x^a+(x+h)^a\ge (x+h+k)^a\implies x^a\ge\sum_{i=1}^a\binom{a}{i}(x+h)^{a-i}k^i\x^a\ge a(x+h)^{a-1}k+\sum_{i=2}^a\binom{a}{i}(x+h)^{a-i}k^i$$ Choose $a$ such that $ka\ge x$ and you get $$x^a\ge x^a+K\text { where } K\gt0$$ which is also true for all exponent $A\gt a$.Thus the most of cases of exponent $a$ the triangular inequality fails. – Ataulfo Apr 21 '24 at 21:12

3 Answers3

2

The conjecture is proved at MathOverflow Question No. 469729.

GH from MO
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  • @ GH fromMO: What could be a nice geometric or vector interpretation of $$P\left(x^a + y^a \ge z^a\right) = \frac{1}{a^2}?$$ Example, when $a=1$ this is the standard triangle inequality and its vector interpretation is that magnitude of the sum of two vectors in less than that of the sum of the individual vectors and the geometric interpretation is that in an Euclidean plane, the straight line is the shortest distance between two point. I am curious to see if there is an elegant interpretation of the generalize exponential triangle inequality. – Nilotpal Sinha Apr 22 '24 at 15:59
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    @NilotpalSinha Well, the event we are looking it is that one can construct a triangle with side lengths $x^a$, $y^a$, $z^a$. The larger the $a$, the rarer the event. I don't see a better geometric interpretation than that. – GH from MO Apr 22 '24 at 16:20
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    I have posted an answer that gives a geometric interpretation. – Dan Apr 23 '24 at 15:39
1

Proof for $a=2$ can be somewhat easy.

We get $P=3/4$ when $a=2$
It is related to Pythagorean Theorem $x^2+y^2=z^2$ occurring when middle angle $\theta_2$ is $90^\circ$.
Hence , when first angle $\theta_1$ is arbitrarily selected & rotated to $0^\circ$ , then second angle $\theta_2$ & third angle $\theta_3$ can be on the two semicircles formed by the Diameter through the first angle $\theta_1$.

Pictorially :
123

We can see various $\theta$ angles.
Both on upper semicircle will give obtuse angle & inequality will not hold.
One on upper semicircle & One on lower semicircle will give acute angle & inequality will hold.
Both on lower semicircle will give acute angle & inequality will hold.
Calculating Probability , we have to check the good Pair versus bad Pair , when $\theta_2$ is between $0$ & $2\pi$ , while $\theta_3$ is between $\theta_2$ & $2\pi$
It is like this :
BLUEPURPLE
Bad Pair (Blue Area) is $1/4$ while good Pair (Purple Area) is $3/4$.

Process is same for other $a$ values , though visualization & integration might be cumbersome.

Prem
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1

Long comment: geometric interpretation


Suppose a triangle has side lengths $a,b,c$ where $c$ is the longest.

enter image description here

In the diagram, the triangle shares a base of length $c$ with the orange region. The orange region is bounded above by circular arcs of radius $c$, centred at the triangle's bottom vertices. The triangle's top vertex must lie within the orange region, because $c$ is the longest side length.

Now let's see what triangles look like when they satisfy $a^p+b^p>c^p$.

enter image description here

Suppose the top vertex has coordinates $(x,y)$. Pythagorus gives $a=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $b=\sqrt{(c-x)^2+y^2}$.

If $a^p+b^p=c^p$ then $(x^2+y^2)^\frac{p}{2}+((c-x)^2+y^2)^\frac{p}{2}=c^p$. This is the equation of the green curve.

If $a^p+b^p>c^p$ then the top vertex must lie above the green curve, but still in the orange region. So we can see what triangles look like when they satisfy $a^p+b^p>c^p$.

It can be shown that, as $p$ increases, the green curve approaches the upper boundary of the orange region. (A general point on the left boundary of the orange region has coordinates $(x, c+\sqrt{c^2-y^2})$; plug this into the LHS of the equation of the green curve, and you will see that it is approximately equal to the RHS of the equation of the green curve, when $p$ is large. Same for the right boundary.) This gives an intuition why, if the triangle is a randomly inscribed triangle in a circle, then $P(a^p+b^p>c^p)\to 0$ as $p\to\infty$.

Dan
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  • But the fact that the green curve "approaches" the orange curve in the limit is not at all "geometrically" obvious to me and the justification you gave is purely an algebraic one. – dezdichado Apr 24 '24 at 02:20
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    @dezdichado Fair enough. My interpretation is a combination of geometry and algebra. Before I came up with this interpretation, I had no idea what triangles satisfying $a^p+b^p>c^p$ look like. Now I can visualize them. – Dan Apr 24 '24 at 02:37