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In Artin's "Galois Theory" P38, he said the function $$f(x) = \frac{(x^2 - x + 1)^3}{x^2(x-1)^2}$$ satisfies the properties of $f(x)=f(1-x)=f(\frac{1}{x})$.

Is the function given by some rational step or just by a flash of insight?

If $f(0)$ is a number, then $f(0) = f(\frac{1}{0})$. So that the domain of definition of f(x) does not include 0.(maybe. I know it's not rigorous) Then the domain of definition of f(x) does not include 1 either. Thus I think it is a function like $f(x)=\frac{g(x)}{x^a(x-1)^bh(x)}, h(0)*h(1) \neq 0$. Then I tried $a=1, b=1$, failed. but $a = 2, b = 2$ succeed.

However, I think that's a really weird way to go about it. Does the question like" $f(x)$ is a rational function that satisfies the properties of $f(x) = f(g_1(x)) = f(g_2(x)) = ... =f(g_n(x)). \forall k \in \mathbb N^+, g_k(x)$ is a rational function. Now give a example of f(x)." has an easy way to solve?

Marine
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    What do you mean by "domain of definition"? Note that in abstract algebra, polynomials and rational functions are not really functions, they are formal expressions. It's perfectly fine if you can't substitute every scalar into the given rational function. – Mark Mar 30 '24 at 09:04
  • Even aside from Mark's comment, $f(x) = f(\frac{1}{x})$ doesn't mean that $f(0)$ must be undefined. Consider $f \equiv 1$. It's true that $f(\frac{1}{0})$ may not be defined, but that's not an issue, because $\frac{1}{0}$ is not in the domain. – legionwhale Mar 30 '24 at 09:06
  • Closely related. May be also this. I apologize for advertising two threads where I answered myself. Those are just easier to find. Not voting to close as a duplicate unless another quality target is found (a live possibility given that this particular group of six automorphisms of the rational function field $K(x)$ is kinda well known, and recycled by every teacher of Galois theory. Including yours truly. – Jyrki Lahtonen Mar 30 '24 at 11:32

3 Answers3

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Note that $g(x) = 1-x $ and $h(x) = \frac{1}{1-x}$ generate a subgroup $G$ of the Möbius group $\mathrm{Aut}(\hat{\mathbb{C}})$ that is isomorphic to $S_3$ via the relations:

$$ g^{2} = \mathrm{id}, \qquad h^{3} = \mathrm{id}, \qquad ghgh = \mathrm{id} $$

Note that $G$ also contains $h(g(x)) = \frac{1}{x}$ and that $G$ is also generated by $g$ and $hg$, which explains why $G$ is related to OP's question.

Now define $f(x)$ by

$$ f(x) := \sum_{\sigma \in G} \frac{\sigma(x)(\sigma(x) + 1)}{2}. \tag{1} $$

Then clearly $f(\tau(x)) = f(x)$ for any $\tau \in G$. Moreover, it turns out that this $f(x)$ is precisely what OP asked:

$$ f(x) = \frac{(x^2-x+1)^3}{x^2 (x-1)^2}. $$


Here is a possible explanation for the choice of $f(x)$. Consider the region

$$ U = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} : |z| < 1 \text{ and } |1-z| < 1 \text{ and } \operatorname{Im}(z) > 0 \}. $$

This $U$ corresponds to reddish region in the figure below:

Regions

Then $\sigma(\overline{U})$ for $\sigma \in G$ forms a non-overlapping division of the Riemann sphere $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$, each of which corresponding one of the six colored regions in the figure above.

Now, as the figure suggests, the points $e^{\pm i\pi/3}$ play special roles, in that $\sigma(e^{\pm i\pi/3}) = e^{i\pi/3}$ or $e^{-i\pi/3}$ for each $\sigma \in G$. In fact,

  • exactly three elements of $G$ maps $e^{i\pi/3}$ to $e^{i\pi/3}$, and
  • the remaining three maps $e^{i\pi/3}$ to $e^{-i\pi/3}$.

This tells that

$$ \sum_{\sigma \in G} \sigma(e^{i\pi/3})^2 = 3(e^{i\pi/3} + e^{-i\pi/3}) = -3. $$

This and the identity

$$ \sum_{\sigma \in G} \sigma(x) = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \sum_{\sigma \in G} \sigma(x) + \sum_{\sigma \in G} g(\sigma(x)) \right] = 3 $$

together, we know that $f(x)$ has the factor $x^2 - x + 1$. Moreover, since the figure above tells that three regions meet at each of $e^{\pm i\pi/3}$, it is not unreasonable to expect that $f(x)$ contains multiple copies of $x^2 - x + 1$.

Although I don't have enough expertise to pursue this direction, I believe Artin had certain understanding on this kind of topic when he designed the function $f(x)$.

Sangchul Lee
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Let $K = \mathbf C(x)$. This is a field with automorphisms $r$ and $s$ where $r(h(x)) = h(1/(1-x))$ and $s(h(x)) = h(1/x)$: In other words, $r$ and $s$ are linear-fractional changes of variables $x \mapsto 1/(1-x)$ and $s \mapsto 1/x$. Check $r$ has order $3$, $s$ has order $2$, and $r(s(h)) = s(r^2(h))$ for all $h \in K$. So $\langle r,s\rangle \cong S_3$.

Since $r(s(h)) = r(h(1/x)) = h(1/(1/(1-x))) = h(1-x)$, the way you describe your problem puts emphasis on $r$ and $rs$, which both have order $2$, but they generate the same group as $r$ and $s$: $\langle r,s\rangle = \langle rs,s\rangle$.

If a finite group $G$ acts as automorphisms on a field $K$, then $K^G := \{\alpha \in K : g(\alpha) = \alpha {\rm \ for \ all \ } g \in G\}$ is the subfield of $K$ consisting of elements in $K$ fixed by all of $G$ and Artin proves in the book that $K$ is a Galois extension of $K^G$ with ${\rm Gal}(K/K^G) \cong G$. When $\alpha \in K$, the polynomial $\prod_{g \in G} (T - g(\alpha))$ has coefficients all fixed by $G$: they're in $K^G$.

The simplest coefficients in that polynomial are its 2nd leading coefficient $-\sum_{g\in G} g(\alpha)$ and its constant term $\pm\prod_{g \in G} g(\alpha)$. These are the trace and norm maps from $K$ to $K^G$ on $\alpha$, up to sign: $$ {\rm Tr}(\alpha) = \sum_{g \in G} g(\alpha), \ \ \ {\rm N}(\alpha) = \prod_{g\in G} g(\alpha). $$ The values are always in $K^G$.

Applying this to the 1st paragraph, with $G = \langle r,s\rangle$ acting on $K = \mathbf C(x)$, we have ${\rm Tr}(x) = 3$ and ${\rm N}(x) = 1$, which is boring, while $$ {\rm Tr}(x^2) = \frac{2x^6-6x^5+9x^4-8x^3+9x^2-6x+2}{x^2(x-1)^2} $$ and ${\rm N}(x^2) = 1$. That numerator in the trace is irreducible. But $$ {\rm Tr}(x+x^2) = \frac{2x^6-6x^5+12x^4-14x^3+12x^2-6x+2}{x^2(x-1)^2}, $$ which is $$ 2\frac{x^6-3x^5+6x^4-7x^3+6x^2-3x+1}{x^2(x-1)^2} = \frac{2(x^2-x+1)^3}{x^2(x-1)^2}, $$ and that leads to ${\rm Tr}((x+x^2)/2)$ being the rational function you asked about.

KCd
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The rational complex functions can be transformed by the group of linear fractional Moebius transformations $$w =\frac{\alpha z + \beta}{\gamma z + \delta}$$ given $$\det\left( \begin {array} {cc} a & b \\ c & d \\\end{array} \right) \ne 0.$$ Nesting two Moebius transformations

$$w =\frac{\alpha z + \beta}{\gamma z + \delta}, \ v=\frac{\epsilon w + \zeta}{\eta w + \theta}$$ the coefficient matrix is a product of the matrices, and with det =1, it is a group $SU(2,\mathbb C)$.

In order to work within the complex integers for solutions of algebraic equations with rational coefficients, the subgroup $SU(2,\mathbb Z)$ generated by integer tranlsations $$ z\to z+1, \ z\to z+i$$ and the inversion at the unit circle $$ z\to \frac{1}{z}$$ is the main tool to reduce and produce the representations of the root algebra.

Roland F
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