I'm trying to prove that $n^2 < 2^n$. I see this proof question from the example of 2.5.3 here.
I understand that when you prove an inductive case where $P(k+1)$ is true, you have first to assume the base case where $k^2 < 2^k$ is true.
Based on the base case assumption, you have to consider the case where $(k+1)^2 < 2^{k+1}$. In the linked article, it says, "To prove such an inequality, start with the left-hand side and work towards the right-hand side:"
And I can't understand the calculation flow. I understand $(k+1)^2$ to the second power is expanded, and you get $k^2 + 2k + 1$. And the article says by the inductive hypothesis, you get "${} < 2^k + 2k + 1$, which confuses me: I can't understand what is happening here. I can't understand why the $=$ sign changes into $<$. And the following flow makes me confused further: ${} < 2^k + 2^k$, which is derived from "since $2k + 1 < 2^k$ for $k \geq 5$," to which I wonder where $2k + 1$ came from. And the calculation flow in the article reaches "${} = 2^{k+1}$".
I am sure that my description here is unclear so I will attach the part of the article below. The explanation of the article says $(k+1)^2 < 2{k+1}$, which I can't follow. Could you please explain why and how you can prove that $P(k+1)$ is true?

Yes, I know that (k+1)² = k ² + 2k + 1. – Drftsgfhtt ur gfhh Mar 13 '24 at 04:11