I'm trying to solve this integral:
$$I(x)=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln(t)\sin(2\pi x)\sinh(t)}{\left(\cosh(t)-\cos(2\pi x)\right)^2}dt,$$ where $0<x<1$.
But I can't find intelligent ways to approach it (with elementary substitutions it gets much more complicated).
The only thing I know is the solution to a very similar integral:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln(t)\left(1-\cos(2\pi x)\cosh(t)\right)}{\left(\cosh(t)-\cos(2\pi x)\right)^2}dt=\ln(2\pi)+\frac{\psi(x)+\psi(1-x)}{2},$$ where $\psi(x)$ is the digamma function.
Graphing the first integral $I(x)$ saw that $I(1/2)=0$, so I imagine that the solution is something like $f(x)-f(1-x)$.
Since $2\cosh(x)=e^x+e^{-x}$ and $2 \sinh(x)=e^x-e^{-x}$ structurally I think it might make sense, but I'm not sure.
Motivation of the question
I was trying to find a formula similar to what is asked in this question: I used the formula the OP posted on his IG page