Let's have a succession $X_n$ of real value random variables and another real value random variable X, then $$ X_n \xrightarrow{d} X \iff \lim_{n \to \infty}{}d_K(X_n,X) = 0, $$ where $d_K(X,Y)$ is the Kolmogorov-Smirnov distance between X and Y.
Another result tells us that: $$ d_K(X,Y) \leq C\cdot\sqrt{d_{W_1}(X,Y)} $$ where C is a constant and $d_{W_1}(X,Y)$ is the 1-Wasserstein distance between X and Y.
From the two statements above is trivial to prove that $$d_{W_1}(X_n,X) \xrightarrow{} 0 \implies X_n \xrightarrow{d} X$$
But what can we say about the other implication? Can we say that if $X_n$ converges in distribution to $X$ then the 1-Wasserstein distance converges to $0$ or we can't ?