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It should at least be mildly amusing that such functions exist. For example the functions $1/x$ and $1 - x$ are both self-inverse, $f^{\circ2}(x)=x$. Now let's do a mix and match on these two functions to get $g(x)= 1-1/x$ and $h(x) = 1/(1-x)$. Neither of these functions is self-inverse, but $g^{\circ3}(x) = h^{\circ3}(x) = x$. Further, $g^{\circ2} = h$ and $h^{\circ2} = g$.

J.G.
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user1153980
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