This answer is a supplement to @MarcvanLeeuwen's and @ChrisCulter's answers.
Consider the finite-dimensional vector space $\mathbb F^n$ over $\mathbb F$, where $\mathbb F$ is an arbitrary field and $\mathbb F^n = \{(c_1,\dots,c_n) \mid c_1 \in \mathbb F,\dots,c_n \in \mathbb F\}$.
Next, let $b_1,\dots,b_n$ be an arbitrary basis for $\mathbb F^n$ and for each $v \in \mathbb F^n$, let $\textrm{coord}_b(v) = (a_1,\dots,a_n)$ be its coordinate representation with respect to the basis $b_1,\dots,b_n$, such that $a_1 \in \mathbb F,\dots,a_n \in \mathbb F$.
Then, the set $\textrm{coord}_b\left(\mathbb F^n\right) = \{\textrm{coord}_b(v) \mid v \in \mathbb F^n\}$ and the set $\mathbb F^n$ are exactly the same if and only if $b_1,\dots,b_n$ is the standard basis.
This property is what differentiates the standard basis from any other basis. That is, if we let $b_1,\dots,b_n$ be any basis other than the standard basis, then $\textrm{coord}_b\left(\mathbb F^n\right) \neq \mathbb F^n$.
Hence, when we are discussing some finite-dimensional vector space $\mathbb F^n$ over $\mathbb F$, it is important to distinguish between $\mathbb F^n$ and $\textrm{coord}_b\left(\mathbb F^n\right)$, which may or may not be equal depending on the choice of basis $b_1,\dots,b_n$.