Reading through Munkres and he says that for, $$ p: E\to B $$ an opet set $U\subset B$ is $\textbf{evenly covered}$ if there exists a collection of disjoint sets $V_\alpha$ s.t. for each $\alpha$, the restriction of $p$ to $V_\alpha$ is a homeomorphism.
But then, his first example of a non-trivial covering map is $$ p: \mathbb{R}\to S^1 $$ s.t. $$ p(x) = (\cos2\pi x,\sin2\pi x). $$ He then says this "maps each interval $[n, n+1]$ onto $S^1$." Is he trying to say that $$ V_\alpha = V_n = [n, n+1] $$ If so, wouldn't he be stating that $[n, n+1]$ is homeomorphic to the circle (which isn't true)?