2

I am trying to prove the following statement.

If $A$ and $B$ are closed homeomorphic subsets of $\mathbb{R}^{n}$, then show that the homology group of $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A)$ and $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - B)$ are isomorphic.

I tried using long exact sequence for pairs twice. I got

$$\dots \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n}) \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)\to \dots$$ and $$\dots \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n} - B) \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n}) \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - B) \to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B)\to \dots$$

I tried to use the following diagram.

\begin{matrix} \dots \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n} - A)& \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n}) &\to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) &\to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)\to \dots \\ \downarrow & \downarrow &\downarrow &\downarrow \\ \dots \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n} - B)& \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n}) &\to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - B) &\to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B) \to \dots \end{matrix}

I thought diagram chasing would help, but it doesn't as I am not getting any vertical maps.


Can anyone help me with this problem. I read few answers but I cannot use Alexander's Duality. Thank you.


Edit 1

As RJP suggested, I got

$ \dots \to 0 \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)\to 0 \to \dots $ is exact implies $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)$ and simmilarly $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - B) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B)$.

Now how do I show that $H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B)$?

Note- I tried and refered this

But it didn't help. Can anyone give a simpler reasoning?

  • 1
    If I remind you that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is contractible, does that help you? (Hint: use the two long exact sequences seperately) – RJP Jan 06 '21 at 16:15
  • What are the vertical maps in your diagram? – Thorgott Jan 06 '21 at 16:33
  • @Thorgott, I am looking for that. I do not know which vertical maps will help me. I am unable to find any suitable map which will help. That is why I am here – GraduateStudent Jan 06 '21 at 16:52
  • @RJP, So $ \dots \to 0 \to H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \to H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)\to 0 \to \dots $ is exact implies $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - A) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A)$ and simmilarly $H_i(\mathbb{R}^{n},\mathbb{R}^{n} - B) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B)$. Now how do I show that $H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -A) \cong H_{i-1}(\mathbb{R}^{n} -B)$? – GraduateStudent Jan 06 '21 at 17:06

0 Answers0