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Let $T$ be a triangle with vertices belonging to a given Cartesian plane $P$ and with side lengths $a$, $b$ and $c$, where $a\ge b\ge c\ge 0$. Let $L_T$ be a straight line selected uniformly at random from the set of all straight lines on $P$ intersecting $T$, which we define as follows:

$L_T$ is selecting uniformly at random from the set of all straight lines intersecting $T$ and making an angle $\theta$ with a given axis of $P$, where $\theta$ is selected uniformly at random from $[0,\pi)$.


Question: What are the probabilities $\Pr(a)$, $\Pr(b)$ and $\Pr(c)$ that each side of $T$, with length $a$, $b$ and $c$ respectively, is not intersected by $L_T$?

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    How do you specify the uniform measure on that set of lines? Geometric probability questions like this are very sensitive to that specification. (I don't have a reference at the moment.) [edit] to provide this information; don't add it in a comment. – Ethan Bolker Dec 01 '20 at 21:08
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    Random notes: (a) These probabilities can be written in terms of $a, b, c$ since the side lengths uniquely determine a triangle; I'll write $\mathrm{Pr}{a,b,c}(a)$, etc. (b) these probabilities must be homogeneous; $\mathrm{Pr}{\lambda a, \lambda b, \lambda c}(\lambda a)=\mathrm{Pr}{a,b,c}(a)$. (c) $\mathrm{Pr}{a,b,c}(a)+\mathrm{Pr}{a,b,c}(b)+\mathrm{Pr}{a,b,c}(c)=1$; exactly one side will not be intersected by any given line. – Steven Stadnicki Dec 01 '20 at 22:22

1 Answers1

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The answer I propose is:

$$Pr(a)=\dfrac{b+c-a}{a+b+c}, \ \ \ \ Pr(b)=\dfrac{c+a-b}{a+b+c}, \ \ \ \ Pr(c)=\dfrac{a+b-c}{a+b+c} \tag{0}$$

Why that ? This question deserves to be formulated at first in terms of "measure theory", probabilities being considered in a second step, in the framework of the domain called "Integral Geometry" or "Geometric Probability" (see Historical note below).

As all plane lines can be given a unique standardized form:

$x \cos \theta+y \sin \theta=p, \tag{1}$

Therefore, $(p,\theta)\in \mathbb{R^+} \times [0,2\pi)$ is a parameterization of the set of plane lines.

With this parametrization, a natural measure (invariant for the group of direct isometries) is

$$\mu(S)=\int_S dpd\theta$$

(see first reference at the bottom of this text).

For example the measure of the set of straight lines intersecting the disk centered in $0$ with radius $R$ is:

$$ \int_{(p,\theta)\in [0,R] \times [0,2\pi)}dpd\theta=\int_{p=0}^R\int_{\theta=0}^{2 \pi}dpd\theta=2 \pi R$$

(i.e., its perimeter).

Let $S_{A|B,C}$ be the set of lines that separate vertex $A$ from vertices $B,C$, otherwise said, that intersect $AB$ (length $c$) and $AC$ (length $b$) but not $BC$ (length $a$).

One can compute the measure of set $S_{A|B,C}$ to be:

$$ \mu(S_{A|B,C}) \ = \ \int_{S_{A|B,C}} dpd\theta \ = \ b+c-a \tag{2}$$

and similar formulas for the other cases.

It is remarkable that the positivity of measure (2) is equivalent to triangle inequality...

One has to work with conditional probabilities, i.e., by assuming that we limit our attention to lines $(L)$ intersecting triangle $ABC$.

Due to the fact that a line that intersects a triangle intersects two and only two of its sides (setting apart lines passing through one of the vertices, which have measure $0$, therefore are neglectable from the point of view of measure theory):

$$(L) \in S_{A|B,C}, \ \ (L) \in S_{B|C,A}, \ \ (L) \in S_{C|A,B}$$

are disjoint and their union is the whole set of lines (complete set of events in probabilistic terms). Therefore, we have a total measure:

$$(b+c-a) \ + \ (c+a-b) \ + \ (a+b-c) \ = \ a+b+c$$

i.e, the perimeter of the triangle (as was found for the disk above) !

As a consequence, the (conditional) probabilities you are looking for can "logicaly" been taken as given by (0).

Historical corner: "Integral Geometry" (aka "Geometric probability") was initiated by Buffon in the mid-18th century, then by Crofton in the $1880$s, followed by Poincaré (cinematic formulas, see reference below) around 1900, but especially developed by Blaschke and his students circa $1930-1950$ (see Santalo's book "Integral Geometry and Geometric Probability" for a rather clear exposition).

Remark: A cousin domain of Integral Geometry is "Stereology"

A nice presentation of Integral Geometry can be found here.

A rather accessible reference here.

For a generalisation of the perimeter result, see Cauchy-Crofton formula

For cinematic formulas see this (more difficult!) reference.

Another (very theoretical) reference.


Edit: For 3D, use Crofton formula (one of the many formulas of stereology dealing with a number of intercepts $N(...)$ of a variable plane $P$ with a fixed triangle $T$):

$$\int N(P \cap T) d\mu \ = \ \pi L(T)$$

where $L(T)$ is the length (= perimeter) of triangle $T$.

($N=0,2$ in the case of a triangle, $N=1$ being a case with measure $0$).

Of course, practically speaking, the integral in the LHS will be approximated using a mean value...

Jean Marie
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    Thank you very much for your complete and detailed answer @JeanMarie ! Thank you also for the references, which are exactly what I need to better understand these topics. I have a doubt: there are several different ways to specify the uniform measure on that set of lines in the problem text. Do you think that the way I chose for the question is "natural"? Do you think that there are "better" (more natural, more common, more significant) ways to do it? – Penelope Benenati Dec 02 '20 at 14:30
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    In fact, it is the same measure, only with an unimportant angle shift : you take a measure which is $dpd(\theta-\theta_0)$ where theta is polar angle with reference to $x$-axis (I have transcripted your constant $theta$ into $\theta_0$) which is the same as $dpd\theta$... – Jean Marie Dec 02 '20 at 15:01
  • Great, thank you @JeanMarie ! – Penelope Benenati Dec 02 '20 at 15:08
  • Could you please answer my last question @JeanMarie ? Is it correct to say that the three probabilities you calculated do not change extending the problem in more than two dimensions as follows? In a $d$-dimensional Euclidean space with $d>2$, we select uniformly at random a point $\mathbf{p}$ on the unit $(d-1)$-sphere. Thereafter we select a hyperplane $H_T$ uniformly at random from the set of the ones that both intersect triangle $T$ and are orthogonal to $\vec{p}$. (Here, the hyperplane corresponds to the straight line $L_T$ mentioned in the original problem text). – Penelope Benenati Dec 02 '20 at 16:12
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    Let us consider the case $d=3$. Indeed, a plane is completely characterized by a (unit) normal vector ($n$) belonging to the unit sphere $S_2$ and $p$ its distance to origin. But what I don't understand is where your triangle is situated ? In the 3D space ? But is the natural extension of a triangle in this case couldn't be instead a tetrahedron ? – Jean Marie Dec 02 '20 at 16:50
  • As you said @JeanMarie, a natural extension of a triangle in this case could be the tetrahedron. However, I am precisely interested in working on triangles solely, in more than $2$ dimensions, which can be "cut" by random hyperplanes. If I am not wrong, your answer is correct even in the case I described above. Could you please confirm? The triangle is situated in a $d$-dimensional Euclidean space. – Penelope Benenati Dec 02 '20 at 17:49
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    But with which kind of measure in the 3D case ? It's tempting to integrate with $dpd\theta d\phi \sin \phi$... But it does not comply with the uniform distribution orientation of the cutting planes... If one finds the right measure, it's possible that one can retrieve the same formulas... – Jean Marie Dec 02 '20 at 18:19
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    I think you should concentrate on Crofton formula and the way you can extend it to higher dimenions. See for example paragraph 3 of this recent document : https://hal.archives-ouvertes.fr/hal-02907297/document – Jean Marie Dec 03 '20 at 00:41
  • Thank you very much @JeanMarie ! I need a bit of time to understand the problem. – Penelope Benenati Dec 03 '20 at 04:20
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    See the edit I just added to my answer. – Jean Marie Dec 04 '20 at 08:44
  • I thank you really a lot for your precious help @JeanMarie !! The topic is indeed very fascinating, but also very far from my area of expertise... I need to deeply understand how to compute the three probabilities for a triangle in a $d$-dimensional Euclidean space, for any $d\ge 2$. I admit I am still a bit puzzled, sorry for asking you naive questions. If I understood the Crofton formula operates with any $d\ge 2$. How can we generalize the result for $d>3$? For $d=3$, how far is this approach from taking u.a.r. a point $p$ on the $d$-ball and a hyperplane orthogonal to $\vec{p}$? Merci!! – Penelope Benenati Dec 04 '20 at 16:21
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    In fact it is generalizable to nD (I wasn't certain !) : see formula (6.1) of this MSc Thesis – Jean Marie Dec 04 '20 at 21:29
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    In fact, even if have done some stereology, I had never adventured myself beyond 3D ! – Jean Marie Dec 04 '20 at 21:34
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    I think I have found a straightforward extension of the solution to any number of dimensions. I would like to kindly ask you to tell me your opinion about it. I am very interested to know your point of view @JeanMarie. Thank you! – Penelope Benenati Dec 07 '20 at 13:12
  • A nice and deep presentation of convex geometry here though without connection with geometric probability. – Jean Marie May 06 '24 at 12:54