It's an idea that I cannot substantiate. I want to show :
Let $a,b>0$ such that $a+b=1$ and $0\leq x\leq 1$ then we have : $$f(x)=(ax+b(1-x))^{2(a(1-x)+bx)}+(bx+a(1-x))^{2(b(1-x)+ax)}=g(x)+h(x) \leq 1.$$
So we examine :
$$f(x)=(ax+b(1-x))^{2(a(1-x)+bx)}+(bx+a(1-x))^{2(b(1-x)+ax)}=g(x)+h(x)$$
The problem is :
$$f(x)\leq f(\frac{1}{2})$$
So the idea is : prove that $x=0.5$ is a maxima .
Following a the natural way we differentiate $f(x)$ and My claim is the following : the derivative of $f(x)$ is positive for $0\leq x \leq 0.5$ and negative for $0.5\leq x \leq 1$ .
Inspecting the behavior of $f(x)$ it seems that for some value $a,b$ (for example $a=0.6$) the functions $g'(x)$ or $h'(x)$ have an maxima on $I=[0,1]$ . I mean in fact that on a part of this interval $I$, $g'(x)$ is increasing while $-h'(x)$ is decreasing wich is an advantage . Remains to examine the second derivative of $g'(x)$ or $h'(x)$ to find this local extrema . Maybe we can use Lambert's function .
Also to prove the claim we can use a line such that :$f'(x)\leq ux+v$ and $f'(x)\geq ux+v$ if we are on $[0.5,1]$ or $[0,0.5]$.
Update 30/10/2020 :
For $0\leq x\leq 1$ and $0.6\geq a \geq b \geq 0.4$ such that $a+b=1$ we have the following approximation :
$$g(x)=(ax+b(1-x))^{2(a(1-x)+bx)}\simeq p(x)=x(g(1)-g(0))+g(0)$$
$$h(x)=(bx+a(1-x))^{2(b(1-x)+ax)}\simeq q(x)=x(h(1)-h(0))+h(0)$$
So we have :
$$f'(x)=g'(x)+h'(x)=g(x)u(x)+h(x)v(x)\simeq p(x)u(x)+q(x)v(x)$$
Update 31/10/2020
I start with a particulare case let $a=0.6$ and $b=0.4$
First fact $(1)$ :$0.33<0.4^{1.2}$
Second fact $(2)$ :
We have for $0\leq x \leq 0.5$
$$l(x)=2x(0.5-0.33)+0.33\leq (0.6 x+(1-x)0.4)^{2 (0.4 x+(1-x)0.6)}$$
Third fact $(3)$ :
$$0.67>0.6^{0.8}$$
Fourth fact $(4)$ :
We have for $0\leq x \leq 0.5$ :
$$t(x)=2x(0.5-0.67)+0.67\geq (0.4 x+(1-x)0.6)^{2 (0.6 x+(1-x)0.4)}$$
With facts $(2)$ and $(4)$ we have fact $(5)$ for $0\leq x \leq 0.5$:
$$f'(x)=g'(x)+h'(x)=g(x)u(x)+h(x)v(x)\geq g(x)l(x)+t(x)v(x)\geq 0$$
My question: How to prove the claim?