A few days ago my professor gave me a homework. After wasting about twenty sheets of paper I essentially reduced the task to the following
Question. Given a real $p\ge 1$, whether there exists $C=C(p)>0$ such that for each natural $n$, each non-negative numbers $x_1,\dots, x_n$, and $y=2^{-1/p}$, we have $$\sum_{i=1}^n \left(\sum_{j=i}^n x_jy^{j-i}\right)^p\le C \sum_{i=1}^n x_i^p.$$
An equivalent formulation is
Question’. Given a real $p\ge 1$, whether a linear operator $$(x_i)_{i=1}^\infty\to \left(\sum_{j=i}^\infty x_iy^{j-i}\right)_{i=1}^\infty,$$
is a continuous map from $\ell_p$ to $\ell_p$ (where $(\ell_p,\|\cdot\|_p)$ it the normed space of all real-valued sequences $x=(x_i)_{i=1}^\infty$ such that $\|x\|^p=\sum_{i=1}^\infty |x_i|^p<\infty$)?
Thanks.
My try. It seems that when $p$ equals $1$, $2$, or $3$ then we can obtain an affirmative answer, expanding the left-hand side (when $p=1$ this is especially easy) and then estimating products of $p$ distinct $x_i$’s by sum of their $p$th powers. But there is an abyss between these particular cases and the general answer.
I hope I can answer the question after some work. But this can be a bicycle invention, because this result can be known (but hard to find). Also it looks nice, so I decide to share the question with the community. Maybe it has a nice solution based on a known (but not by me) inequality. Remark that the straightforward application of Hölder’s inequality to the left-hand side provides too weak bound.
Motivation. If the inequality does not hold for some $p\ge 2$ then we expect to apply a construction of an unconditionally convergent series from [VK] to show that for each infinite set $X$, a Banach ring $\ell_p(X)$ does not have a property required in this dch’ question.
References
[VK] N. Vakhania, V. Kvaratskhelia, On unconditional convergence of series in Banach spaces with unconditional basis, Bull. Georgian Acad. Sci. 3:1 (2009) 20–23.