I'm not that familiar with theoretical math in general (I studied engineering), but I recently ended up down a theoretical rabbit hole that led me to the following question:
Is there some type of well known property (e.g. locally compact, locally connected, regular) of a complete, Hausdorff topological ring $R$ that guarantees the following property:
Let $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} r_i$ unconditionally converge in $R$, where $r_i \in R$. Given any open set $S$ containing $0_R$ (the additive identity of the ring) there exists an open set $S'$ containing $0_R$ such that, given any finite subset $F$ of $S'$ and any sequence $f_i \in F$, $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} f_i r_i$ is in $S$.
This seems to be true if $R$ equals the real numbers with the usual topology, which I think I've proven:
Let $r = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} |r_i|$ (we know a series of real numbers converges absolutely if it converges unconditionally) and choose $S$ to be the open ball of radius $\epsilon > 0$ centered at the origin. If $r=0$, any choice of an open set $S'$ will do, so we'll move on to the harder case.
If $r\ne0$, then let $S'$ be the open ball of radius $\frac{\epsilon}{r}$. Thus for any elements $f_i \in S'$, $|f_i| < \frac{\epsilon}{r}$. This leads to the conclusion that $|\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} f_i r_i| \le \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} |f_i r_i| = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} |f_i||r_i| < \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{\epsilon}{r}|r_i| =\frac{\epsilon}{r} \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} |r_i| = \frac{\epsilon}{r}r = \epsilon$, assuming $|\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} f_i r_i|$ converges in the first place. In our case, we know the sum converges because, by assumption, the $f_i$ come from a finite set and $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}r_i$ converges unconditionally.
It seems like the same would apply to the ring of complex numbers as well. But when does this property apply to complete Hausdorff topological rings in general?
(Just a note: it turns out that in a complete Hausdorff abelian topological group, for any unconditionally convergent series, the series' subseries also converge, as stated in the section "Unconditionally convergent series" at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Series_(mathematics). Thus as $F$ is finite, unless I am making a mistake, $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} f_i r_i$ also converges. The question is just if it converges in $S$.)