I came across the following example that explains the Law of Implication, which I cannot wrap my head around.
How is it that:$$p \Rightarrow q$$
Is logically equivalent to:
$$\neg p \lor q$$?
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2Did you try making a truth table? – Aniruddha Deb Sep 12 '20 at 16:00
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3Does this answer your question? Help to understand material implication – player3236 Sep 12 '20 at 16:02
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As with many things, having a few quintessential examples in your pocket helps. "If $x$ is a rational number then $x^2$ is rational" and note that $5$ and $5^2$ are both rational, that $\pi$ and $\pi^2$ are both not, and that $\sqrt{3}$ is not but $\sqrt{3}^2$ is. – JMoravitz Sep 12 '20 at 16:08