Let $S_n := X_1 + \dots + X_n$ for some i.i.d. r.v. $X_i$ (specifics not so important) and let $f$ be a function satisfying
\begin{align} Ef(x+X_1) = f(x). \end{align} Then, as always the following would hold \begin{align} E\left(f(S_n + X_{n+1}) \vert X_1, \dots X_n\right) = f(S_n) \quad \text{(correct?)} \end{align} Now, what if we additionally have some r.v. $Y_1, \dots, Y_n$ depending on $X_1, \dots, X_n$ in some way but independent of $X_{n+1}$ and consider \begin{align} E\left( f(S_n + X_{n+1}) \vert X_1,\dots, X_n, Y_1, \dots, Y_n\right), \end{align} is this still equal to $f(S_n)$?
It is weird that I have never thought about this before... Also, this question could probably be asked in a more general form, but I thought giving a hands-on example might make it more palpable.
Edit: As was correctly pointed out, I should've been clearer: The $Y_1, \dots, Y_n$ are not stochastically independent of the $X_1, \dots, X_n$. They're not measurebale functions of the $X_1, \dots, X_n$.