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This question arises from Strang's Linear Algebra p.368. It concerns the matrix $$A = \left( \begin{array}{cccc} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right)$$. Some straightforward computation shows that $$AA^T = \left( \begin{array}{cccc} 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 & 2 & 2 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 & 3 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\ \end{array} \right) \ \text{ and } \ (AA^T)^{-1} = \left( \begin{array}{cccc} 2 & -1 & 0 & 0 \\ -1 & 2 & -1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1 & 2 & -1 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right)$$ Now the textbook claims that all eigenvalues of $(AA^T)^{-1}$ have the form $2-2\cos(\theta)$. Is it straightforward from the context?

P. Factor
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If we're looking for the fact that each eigenvalue can be expressed as $2 - 2 \cos \theta$ for some $\theta$, which is to say that the eigenvalues fall on the interval $[0,4]$, then there is indeed a straightforward way to confirm that this is the case.

It suffices to note that the eigenvalues are real because $(AA^T)^{-1}$ is symmetric, and that they must satisfy $|\lambda - 2| \leq 2$ either by the Gershgorin disk theorem or by considering either the $p=1$ or $p=\infty$ operator $p$-norm of $(AA^T)^{-1} - 2I$.


If we're looking for the exact expression for the eigenvalues, then no, the fact is not quite straightforward. However, we can see this relatively quickly if we correctly "guess" the eigenvectors of this matrix. In particular, every eigenvector has the form $$ v = \left(\sin (\theta), \sin \left( 2\theta\right), \sin \left( 3\theta \right), \sin \left( 4\theta\right) \right)^T $$ For $\theta = \frac{\pi k}{5}$ with $k = 1,\dots,4$. It now suffices to verify that for these $\theta$, we have $$ (AA^T)^{-1}v = \left[2 - 2 \cos(\theta)\right] v. $$


Let $\theta$ be arbitrary, let $v$ be the vector above, and let $y = (y_1,\dots,y_4)^T$ be the vector $(AA^T)^{-1}v$. We would like to find the $\theta$ for which $y$ is a multiple of $v$. We compute as follows: $$ y_1 = 2 \sin \theta - \sin(2 \theta) = 2 \sin\theta - 2 \sin\theta \cos \theta = (2 - 2 \cos \theta)\sin \theta = (2 - 2 \cos \theta) v_1 $$ The computations for $y_2$ and $y_3$ are similar. Using the the sum to product identity, we have $$ \begin{align} y_2 &= 2 \sin(2 \theta) - (\sin \theta + \sin (3 \theta)) \\ & = 4 \sin \theta \cos \theta - 2\sin\left( \frac{3 \theta + \theta}{2}\right) \cos \left( \frac{3 \theta - \theta}{2}\right) \\ & = (2 - 2 \cos \theta)\sin(2 \theta) = (2 - 2\cos \theta) v_2 \end{align} $$ In general, we have $$ 2 \sin(k \theta) - (\sin ((k-1)\theta) + \sin ((k+1) \theta)) = (2 - 2 \cos \theta)\sin(k \theta). $$ So, we can similarly say that $y_3 = (2 - 2\cos \theta) v_3$. If you prefer, we could also have handled $y_1$ with this trick, since $$ 2 \sin \theta - \sin(2 \theta) = 2 \sin (1 \cdot \theta) - (\sin(0 \cdot \theta) + \sin (2 \cdot \theta)). $$

So far, we have not deduced any conditions on $\theta$. For the last entry, we reapply the above computational trick to find that $$ \begin{align} y_4 = 2 \sin(4 \theta) - \sin (3 \theta) &= [2 \sin(4 \theta) - (\sin (3 \theta) + \sin(5\theta))] + \sin (5 \theta) \\ & = (2 - 2\cos \theta)\sin(4 \theta) + \sin(5 \theta) = (2 - 2\cos \theta)v_4 + \sin(5 \theta). \end{align} $$ So, we see that $y$ will be a multiple of $v$ (which is to say that $v$ will be an eigenvector) if and only if $\sin(5\theta) = 0$, which leads us to the characterization above.

Ben Grossmann
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  • There are quite a few papers on eigenvalues of tridiagonal matrices- it's an oddly specialized topic but many results are known. – Brian Borchers Jan 29 '20 at 22:35
  • @BrianBorchers I'm aware of some of the results on tridiagonal matrices, most of which are tricks for speeding up the (approximate) calculation of eigenvalues. I also know that Toeplitz tridiagonal matrices are a particularly well-studied case. That being said, I wanted to answer the question in the most elementary way possible. – Ben Grossmann Jan 29 '20 at 22:43
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    @BrianBorchers It is notable that this specific matrix (or family thereof) often arises in introductory physics/PDE textbooks from discretizing the Laplacian over a line-segment with zero boundary conditions. – Ben Grossmann Jan 29 '20 at 22:46