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Let $U \in \mathbb{R}^k$ and $V\in \mathbb{R}^k$ be two independent standard normal vectors (i.e., $U \sim \mathcal{N}(0,I)$ and $U \sim \mathcal{N}(0,I)$ ). Define a set $S$ as \begin{align} S=\{ x \in \mathbb{R}^k: x_1 \le x_2 \le x_3 \le ... \le x_k \} \end{align}

Our goal is to find an order tight bound on $\mathbb{P}[ U+V \in S, V \in S]$.

Here are some preliminary bounds.

Upper Bound: Using monotonicty of probability measure \begin{align} \mathbb{P}[ U+V \in S, V \in S] \le \min (\mathbb{P}[ U+V \in S],\mathbb{P}[ V \in S])=\min \left(\frac{1}{k!} ,\frac{1}{k!} \right)=\frac{1}{k!} . \end{align}

Lower Bound: \begin{align} \mathbb{P}[ U+V \in S, V \in S] \ge \mathbb{P}[ U \in S, V \in S]= \left( \frac{1}{k!} \right)^2 \end{align} where we have used that $ U \in S, V \in S \Rightarrow U+V \in S, V \in S$.

Note that the orders are very different here. This question is inspired by something that I asked earlier here.

Boby
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  • It is certainly $(\frac 1{k!})^2$ up to an exponential in $k$ factor but finding the exact exponent may be difficult. How much do you care about the size of the exponential correction? – fedja Jan 06 '20 at 15:06
  • @fedja at this point, I don't care much about the size of the exponential correction. So any bound that improves this would be useful. – Boby Jan 07 '20 at 16:05
  • @fedja Sorry to bother you. But can you at least share an idea of how to improve the upper bound? Maybe I can take over from there. – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 13:17

1 Answers1

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Sorry for the delay.

We have to figure out when $(U,U+V)$ lies in the cone $C=S\times S\subset \mathbb R^{2k}$ of angular measure $\frac 1{(k!)^2}$. Note that then $(U,V)$ lies in the cone $TC$ where $T$ is the linear transformation given by $(x,y)\mapsto (x,y-x)$. So we need to find or estimate the angular measure of $TC$ in $\mathbb R^{2k}$. The determinant of $T$ is $1$, so it preserves volumes. The norm of $T^{-1}$, however, is $\alpha=\sqrt{\frac{3+\sqrt 5}2}$, so if $TC$ intersects the unit ball by volume $V$, then $C$ intersects the ball of radius $\alpha$ by volume at least $V$. Passing to the angular measures, we see that the angular measure of $TC$ is at most the angular measure of $C$ times $\alpha^{2k}$, so we get an upper bound $\frac{1}{(k!)^2}(\frac{3+\sqrt 5}{2})^k$. That is not sharp, of course, but it gives you a general idea of what to expect.

fedja
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  • Ok. Can we put this into some formulas? I think what you are saying is that $(U,U+V)=A( U,V)$ for some matrix $A$. So, $ \mathbb{P}[ (U,V+U) \in C] = P[ (U,V) \in A^{-1} C ]$, correct? Now, I couldn't really fall of the other steps. Specifically, I think you get to the upper bound $P[ (U,V) \in A^{-1} C ] \le | A^{-1} |^k P[ (U,V) \in C ]$. However, I cannot follows this part. Sorry, for being slow. Maybe you can give a bit more explanation for me here. – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 18:08
  • @Boby Let's try to figure out where you are getting lost. The main thing I use is that if the angular measure of the cone $C\subset \mathbb R^n$ is $a$, then, on the one hand, the probability that the standard Gaussian vector belongs to $C$ is also $a$ and, on the other hand, the volume of $C$ intersected with $B(0,r)$ is $r^n a{\rm vol}(B(0,1))$. Is that much clear? – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:22
  • Thanks. It would be nice to do it slowly. Yes, this part is clear. – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 18:27
  • @Boby Now let's look at the angular measure of $TC$ (in my notation). Assume it is $a$. then $a{\rm vol}(B(0,1))={\rm vol}(TC\cap B(0,1))={\rm vol}(T^{-1}[TC\cap B(0,1)])$. Is this clear? – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:31
  • The first equality is clear. Why does it hold that ${\rm vol }(TC \cup B(0,1))={\rm vol}(T^{-1}[TC \cup B(0,1))$? Is it because ${\rm vol}(T^{-1}[TC \cup B(0,1))= det(T^{-1}) {\rm vol}(TC \cup B(0,1)) $ and $det(T^{-1}) =1$. – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 18:41
  • @Bovy Yes, this is because the determinant is $1$, so $T^{-1}$ is volume-preserving. Should we continue? – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:43
  • Yeah. Let's continue... So $a=\frac{{\rm vol}(T^{-1}[TC \cup B(0,1)]}{{\rm vol}( B(0,1))}$, right? – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 18:45
  • The last step is that $T^{-1}[TC\cap B(0,1)]=T^{-1}[TC]\cap T^{-1}[B(0,1)]\subset C\cap B(0,|T^{-1}}$, so the last volume is at most the angular measure of $C$ times $|T^{-1}|^{2k}{\rm vol}(B(0,1))$. Now just cancel ${\rm vol}(B(0,1))$ and interpret the angular measure as probability. Any problems in this part? – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:48
  • @Boby By the way, I wrote $\cap$ (intersection) where you are writing $\cup$ (union). I presume it is just a typo on your part :-) – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:51
  • Yes, it's a typo. Sorry :). I think I follow this now. Thank you for your patience. – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 18:53
  • @Boby You are welcome :-) – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 18:54
  • Sorry, one more question. How did you compute the norm of the operate $T^{-1}$? – Boby Jan 09 '20 at 19:10
  • @Boby The usual thing: what is the best $a>0$ such that $(x+y)^2+x^2\le a^2(x^2+y^2)$? (or, alternatively, you can find the eigenvalues of a $2\times 2$ matrix). Anyway, the exponential factor is not sharp, so it doesn't matter too much what exactly it is. – fedja Jan 09 '20 at 20:00
  • Hi fedja, I was wondering if you can take a look at the following question of mine: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4405600/how-to-simplify-mathbbp-axz-ge-0-xz – Boby Mar 17 '22 at 15:04