I was wondering what are the weakest hypothesis for applying integration by parts to calculate $$\int_a^b fg \, dm,$$ where $m$ denotes the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R$.
Is it enough that $f$ be differentiable on $(a,b)$, $f' \in L^1(a,b)$ and $g \in L^1(a,b)$ to write
$$ \int_a^b fg \,dm = \left[f(x)\int_a^x g(t) \,dm(t)\right]_a^b - \int_a^b f'(x) \left(\int_a^x g(t) \,dm(t) \right) \,dm(x)\text{ ?} $$