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Show that $p\mid 2^n-n$ for infinitely many $n$. $p$ is a prime and $n$ is an integer.

I tried using Fermat's little theorem and got $2^p-p\equiv2\pmod p$ and $2^{p-1}-(p-1)\equiv2\pmod p$. So I can't even find one $n$ that satisfy the condition.

Any helps and hints appreciated. (even just one $n$ that works for every $p$)

nonuser
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abc...
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1 Answers1

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Put $$n = (p-1)(kp-1)$$

where $k$ is arbitrary positive integer.

Then $$ 2^n-n = (2^{p-1})^{kp-1}-(p-1)(kp-1)\equiv 1-1 =0 \pmod p$$

nonuser
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  • Nice! How did you come up with this? What's the intuition here? – abc... Feb 17 '19 at 10:07
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    First thought was, how to get out $2^n$. This is easy by FLT, put $n= (p-1)\times$ something. Then we have $1-(p-1)\times$ something must be divisible by $p$. When would that be? – nonuser Feb 17 '19 at 10:09