Even though you're trying to prove the statement, it's still profitable to start by searching for a counterexample. Think about what could go wrong, and keep trying to trap the counterexample into a corner until you've either ruled it out or found it.
We know that $f$ is continuous on the open sub-interval $(a,b)$. So if you define a smoothed function $g:[a,b]\to\mathbb R$ by $g(a)=\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$, $g(b)=\lim_{x\to b}f(x)$, and $g(x)=f(x)$ for $a<x<b$, then $g$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$. By the extreme value theorem, $g$ does attain a minimum.
If the argmin of $g$ is in $(a,b)$, then $f$ attains a minimum as well: either at the same place, or at $a$ or $b$. So the only remaining way to find a counterexample to the claim must take this form, without loss of generality:
- Define a continuous $g:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ which has a unique minimum at $0$.
- Define $f$ by starting with $g$ and screwing around with $f(0)$.
Now your goal is either to prove that that's impossible -- no matter what happens to $f(0)$, as long as it's convex, $f$ still attains a minimum -- or to provide a counterexample of that form.