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I was looking at the equation $f^{-1}(x)=\int f(x)dx$ recently.

One can note that it has an easy real-valued solution $f(x)=\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}x^{\phi-1}$ (by guessing for a solution of the form $ax^b$), where $\phi$ is the golden ratio, since:

$$f^{-1}(x)=\Bigg(\frac{x}{\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}}\Bigg)^{\frac{1}{\phi-1}}=\frac{x^{\frac{1}{\phi-1}}}{\phi^{\frac{1}{\phi}}}=\frac{x^{\frac{\phi}{\phi^2-\phi}}}{\phi^{\frac{1}{\phi}}}=\frac{x^{\phi}}{\phi^{\frac{1}{\phi}}}=\frac{\phi x^{\phi}}{\phi \phi^{\frac{1}{\phi}}}=\frac{\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}} x^{\phi}}{\phi}=\frac{\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}} x^{(\phi-1)+1}}{(\phi-1)+1}\\=\int f(x)dx$$

But, initially, I tried to avoid making such outright guesses.

I assumed a real analytic solution existed- then, I converted the equation into a slightly friendlier form:

$$f'(x)=\frac{1}{f(f(x))}$$

Then, finally, I assumed the analytic solution had a fixed point, $a$.

This would allow me to compute the function's derivatives about this, as-yet-unknown fixed point $a$ in terms of $a$ by repeatedly differentiating both sides of $f'(x)=\frac{1}{f(f(x))}$ (which I meant to plug into the Taylor series for the solution).

For instance, $f'(a)=\frac{1}{f(f(a))}=\frac{1}{a}$. By differentiating both sides of $f'(x)=\frac{1}{f(f(x))}$, we get $f^{(2)}(x)=\frac{-f'(f(x))f'(x)}{f(f(x))^2}$ which can be rewritten as $f^{(2)}(x)=\frac{-1}{f(f(x))^3f(f(f(x)))}$ to give $f^{(2)}(a)=\frac{-1}{a^4}$.

Similarly, the expressions for $f^{(3)}(a),f^{(4)}(a),$ and $f^{(5)}(a)$ are:

$$\frac{3}{a^7}+\frac{1}{a^8},\quad -\frac{15}{a^{10}}-\frac{10}{a^{11}}-\frac{3}{a^{12}}-\frac{1}{a^{13}},\quad \frac{105}{a^{13}}+\frac{105}{a^{14}}+\frac{55}{a^{15}}+\frac{30}{a^{16}}+\frac{10}{a^{17}}+\frac{3}{a^{18}}+\frac{1}{a^{19}}$$
and so on.

What I found interesting, coming back to the simple solution now, is that $f(x)=\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}x^{\phi-1}$ does in fact have a fixed point- namely, $x=\phi$.

It's easy to see that $f^{(k)}(\phi)=\phi^{1-k}\prod_{i=1}^k(\phi-i)$, so $f^{(k)}(\phi)$ should equal $$\sum_{j=-1}^{k-1}a_j\phi^{-j}$$ where
$$a_j=(-1)^{j+1}\sum_{S\subset \{1,2,...,k\},\\|S|=j+1}\prod_{x\in S} x$$

But, plugging in $\phi$ in place of $a$ (the fixed point), we get an expression of a similar form to $\sum_{j=-1}^{k-1}a_j\phi^{-j}$ for $f^{(k)}(\phi)$ but with different bounds and coefficients (even though both evaluate to the same thing). I wrote a simple script to calculate some of the higher derivative expressions for $a$ and using the numbers it gave me I found this OEIS sequence (it seems to match the coefficients of the expressions aside from the signs).

My question is, first, obviously, how can I determine whether the original functional equation has any other analytic solutions (in particular, ones with fixed points)? But, second, how can I prove the form for the coefficients of the derivative expressions in $a$ and what does it have to do with $\phi$?

Edit: If it helps, here's the script (in Python). If you spot anything wrong, please let me know

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    How in the world does $ax^b$ solve that? – Randall Feb 08 '19 at 14:25
  • If $f(x)=\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}x^{\phi-1}$, $f^{-1}(x)=\bigg(\frac{x}{\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}}\bigg)^\frac{1}{\phi-1}=x^{\frac{1}{\phi-1}}\phi^{\frac{-1}{\phi}}=x^{\frac{\phi}{\phi^2-\phi}}\phi^{\frac{-1}{\phi}}=x^{\phi}\phi^{\frac{-1}{\phi}}=\frac{x^{\phi}\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}}{\phi}=\frac{x^{(\phi-1)+1}\phi^{\frac{\phi-1}{\phi}}}{(\phi-1)+1}=\int f(x)dx$ – CardioidAss22 Feb 08 '19 at 14:34
  • Next question: what does $f^{-1}$ mean to you? – Randall Feb 08 '19 at 14:36
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    @Randall A compositional inverse? I thought I was using the normal notation – CardioidAss22 Feb 08 '19 at 14:37
  • @Randall I think you mean the inverse for something like $f(x)=ab^x$. For $f(x)=ax^b$ the inverse instead works out to $\frac{x}{a}^{\frac{1}{b}}$- like square roots and stuff – CardioidAss22 Feb 08 '19 at 14:45
  • I thought you were asserting that $ax^b$ always solved it, regardless of $a$, $b$. Carry on. I see my mistakes now. – Randall Feb 08 '19 at 14:46
  • This is very related. – TheSimpliFire Feb 12 '19 at 21:02
  • @CosmasZachos I'm not sure how far I would be able to get with that approach considering the function here has three layers of nesting in $\frac{1}{f(f(x))}$ and to get down to the final coefficients each derivative term, like $f^{(4)}(f(x))$ would have to be simplified down to an iterated term like $\frac{1}{f(f(f(x)))^3}-\frac{7}{f(f(x))^{12}}$ (as a completely made up example) so this would be very heavily recursive. But perhaps I'm just being deterred by the complicated expressions. I'll give it a think. Thanks. – CardioidAss22 Feb 27 '19 at 20:10
  • @CosmasZachos Sorry if I was unclear. I assumed your comment was in reference to the part of my question where I ask about proving the link between the coefficients (of which I gave a few examples by expanding $f^{(3)}(a),f^{(4)}(a)$, and $f^{(5)}(a)$) and members of a certain OEIS sequence (which I have linked to in my question). Yes, the equation itself has seemed to me to be so far rather unwieldy with regard to such manipulation. – CardioidAss22 Feb 27 '19 at 20:21
  • Yes, I understand that... I just did not appreciate how this would produce solutions... or uniqueness. A pure power solution for f is ensured by $\partial ( (x\partial f )/f)=0$, but I don't see this emerging from the friendly equation... – Cosmas Zachos Feb 27 '19 at 21:45
  • @CosmasZachos I wasn't very clear on this part. The issue of the coefficients is mostly a separate problem from the uniqueness of the solution but it may be able to provide some progress on that front. Like if one proved any real analytic solution to the equation has a fixed point. You'll notice that if we assumed $a=1$, we get the simple sum of the coefficients as our derivatives which grows quite rapidly. It actually seems that $\frac{\sum_{nth}coefficients}{n!}$ grows superexponentially. In this manner, certain possibilities may be ruled out by looking at the behavior of the coefficients. – CardioidAss22 Feb 28 '19 at 18:54

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