We say $\{f_n\}$ weakly converge to $f$ in $L^1[-π,π]$ if for each $g \in L^\infty[-π,π]$,
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_{-π}^{π}f_n(x)g(x)dx=\int_{-π}^{π}f(x)g(x)dx.$$
There is a question in my homework which I can't prove it:
For each $f \in L^1[-π,π]$, the Fourier partial sums are denoted by $S_n$. If $S_n$ weak converge to $f$, then $S_n$ strongly converge to $f$.
I think maybe we need to find some specific characteristic functions to prove the statement while I failed to find it.
By the way, I made some effort below:
Using the property of weak convergence, we can prove the Fourier partial sum converge in measure, which means it has a pointwise almost everywhere convergence subsequence. There are two ways to prove the statement.
- Since {$S_n$} is uniformly bounded(by weak convergence), it is obvious that the pointwise a.e convergence subsequence is also convergence in norm. But I don't know how to show the whole sequence is converge.
- I have a lemma which guarantees if I prove the pointwise a.e convergence of {$S_n$}, then I can prove the original statement. This lemma is very difficult to prove but I can make sure it's right. However I can't prove the pointwise a.e convergence.